Maths Olympiad Prep

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Number theory Difficulty 7.9 National olympiad, round 2 Prove it IMO

The sequence f(1),f(2),f(3),f(1), f(2), f(3), \ldots is defined by
f(n)=1n(n1+n2++nn), f(n)=\frac{1}{n}\left(\left\lfloor\frac{n}{1}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{n}{2}\right\rfloor+\cdots+\left\lfloor\frac{n}{n}\right\rfloor\right),
where x\lfloor x\rfloor denotes the integer part of xx.

a. Prove that f(n+1)>f(n)f(n+1)>f(n) infinitely often.

b. Prove that f(n+1)<f(n)f(n+1)<f(n) infinitely often.

Solution

Let g(n)=nf(n)g(n)=n f(n) for n1n \geq 1 and g(0)=0g(0)=0. We note that, for k=1,,nk=1, \ldots, n,
nkn1k=0 \left\lfloor\frac{n}{k}\right\rfloor-\left\lfloor\frac{n-1}{k}\right\rfloor=0
if kk is not a divisor of nn and
nkn1k=1 \left\lfloor\frac{n}{k}\right\rfloor-\left\lfloor\frac{n-1}{k}\right\rfloor=1
if kk divides nn. It therefore follows that if d(n)d(n) is the number of positive divisors of n1n \geq 1 then
g(n)=n1+n2++nn1+nn=n11+n12++n1n1+n1n+d(n)=g(n1)+d(n) \begin{aligned} g(n) & =\left\lfloor\frac{n}{1}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{n}{2}\right\rfloor+\cdots+\left\lfloor\frac{n}{n-1}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{n}{n}\right\rfloor \\ & =\left\lfloor\frac{n-1}{1}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{n-1}{2}\right\rfloor+\cdots+\left\lfloor\frac{n-1}{n-1}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{n-1}{n}\right\rfloor+d(n) \\ & =g(n-1)+d(n) \end{aligned}
Hence
g(n)=g(n1)+d(n)=g(n2)+d(n1)+d(n)==d(1)+d(2)++d(n) g(n)=g(n-1)+d(n)=g(n-2)+d(n-1)+d(n)=\cdots=d(1)+d(2)+\cdots+d(n)
meaning that
f(n)=d(1)+d(2)++d(n)n. f(n)=\frac{d(1)+d(2)+\cdots+d(n)}{n} .
In other words, f(n)f(n) is equal to the arithmetic mean of d(1),d(2),,d(n)d(1), d(2), \ldots, d(n). In order to prove the claims, it is therefore sufficient to show that d(n+1)>f(n)d(n+1)>f(n) and d(n+1)<f(n)d(n+1)<f(n) both hold infinitely often.

We note that d(1)=1d(1)=1. For n>1,d(n)2n>1, d(n) \geq 2 holds, with equality if and only if nn is prime. Since f(6)=7/3>2f(6)=7 / 3>2, it follows that f(n)>2f(n)>2 holds for all n6n \geq 6.

Since there are infinitely many primes, d(n+1)=2d(n+1)=2 holds for infinitely many values of nn, and for each such n6n \geq 6 we have d(n+1)=2<f(n)d(n+1)=2<f(n). This proves claim (b).

To prove (a), notice that the sequence d(1),d(2),d(3),d(1), d(2), d(3), \ldots is unbounded (e. g. d(2k)=k+1d\left(2^{k}\right)=k+1 for all kk ). Hence d(n+1)>max{d(1),d(2),,d(n)}d(n+1)>\max \{d(1), d(2), \ldots, d(n)\} for infinitely many nn. For all such nn, we have d(n+1)>f(n)d(n+1)>f(n). This completes the solution.

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