Let a be a real number, 0≤a≤1. Prove that for any nonnegative integer n the inequality (n+1)a≤n+an+1 holds.
Solutions — 3
Solution 1
The inequality is equivalent to the inequality na−n≤an+1−a, or the inequality n(a−1)≤a(a−1)(an−1+an−2+⋯+1). If a=1, then the inequality obviously holds. If a<1 then a−1<0, and dividing both sides of the inequality by a−1 we get an equivalent inequality n≥a(an−1+an−2+⋯+1), or n≥an+an−1+⋯+a. Since a<1, in the last sum all terms are less than 1, hence the sum does not exceed n.
Solution 2
If n=0 then the inequality is a≤a, which obviously holds. Suppose that the inequality holds for n=k and prove that it then holds for n=k+1 as well. From the inequality (k+1)a≤k+ak+1 we get the inequality (k+2)a≤k+1+ak+2 by adding the inequality a≤1+ak+2−ak+1. The last inequality is equivalent to the inequality (1−a)(1−ak+1)≥0, which obviously holds, because both factors are nonnegative.
Solution 3
If a=0, then the inequality is 0≤n, which obviously holds. If a>0, then AM-GM gives n+11+⋯+1+an+1≥n+11⋯⋅1⋅an+1, which is obviously equivalent with the original inequality.
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