Let f(a,b,c)=a(a+2b)a4+5b4+b(b+2c)b4+5c4+c(c+2a)c4+5a4. Since a+b+c=1 we will prove that f(a,b,c)≥a2+b2+c2+ab+bc+ac.
By Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for positive x1,…,xn
(x1+⋯+xn)(x1a12+⋯+xnan2)≥(a1+⋯+an)2(1)
By applying (1) we get
a(a+2b)a4+b(b+2c)b4+c(c+2a)c4≥(a+b+c)2(a2+b2+c2)2=(a2+b2+c2)2(2)
a(a+2b)b4+b(b+2c)c4+c(c+2a)a4≥(a+b+c)2(a2+b2+c2)2=(a2+b2+c2)2(3)
Now (2) + 5 (3) gives f(a,b,c)≥6(a2+b2+c2)2. Thus, the proof of
6(a2+b2+c2)2≥a2+b2+c2+ab+bc+ac(4)
will complete the solution. Now the sum of 2a2+b2≥ab, 2b2+c2≥bc, 2c2+a2≥ca gives a2+b2+c2≥ab+bc+ca. Therefore, (4) will follow from 6(a2+b2+c2)2≥2(a2+b2+c2) or 3(a2+b2+c2)2≥1. But since a+b+c=1 the last inequality is a quadratic-arithmetic means inequality. Done.