Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / /38 of 94

Algebra Difficulty 5.7 AIME, harder Prove it Hong Kong

Let f(n)=k=1n(1+4cos2(kπ2n+1))f(n) = \prod_{k=1}^{n} \left(1 + 4 \cos^2\left(\frac{k\pi}{2n+1}\right)\right). Prove that f(n)f(n) is an integer for all positive integers nn.

Solution

We shall prove that f(n)=F2n+1f(n) = F_{2n+1}, the (2n+1)(2n+1)th Fibonacci number. Let ζ=e2πi2n+1\zeta = e^{\frac{2\pi i}{2n+1}} be a primitive (2n+1)(2n+1)th root of unity. Then
1+4cos2(kπ2n+1)=3+2cos(2kπ2n+1)=3+2Re(ζk)=3+ζk+ζk. 1 + 4 \cos^2 \left( \frac{k\pi}{2n+1} \right) = 3 + 2 \cos \left( \frac{2k\pi}{2n+1} \right) = 3 + 2 \operatorname{Re}(\zeta^k) = 3 + \zeta^k + \zeta^{-k}.

Note that
x2n+11=k=12n+1(xζk)=(x1)k=1n(xζk)(xζk)=(x1)k=1n(x2(ζk+ζk)x+1). \begin{align*} x^{2n+1} - 1 &= \prod_{k=1}^{2n+1} (x - \zeta^k) \\ &= (x - 1) \prod_{k=1}^{n} (x - \zeta^k)(x - \zeta^{-k}) \\ &= (x - 1) \prod_{k=1}^{n} (x^2 - (\zeta^k + \zeta^{-k})x + 1). \end{align*}
Let α=3+52\alpha = \frac{3+\sqrt{5}}{2} so that α23α+1=0\alpha^2 - 3\alpha + 1 = 0. Putting x=αx = -\alpha, we obtain
α2n+11=(α1)k=1n(α2+(ζk+ζk)α+1)=(α+1)αnk=1n(3+ζk+ζk). -\alpha^{2n+1} - 1 = (-\alpha - 1) \prod_{k=1}^{n} (\alpha^2 + (\zeta^k + \zeta^{-k})\alpha + 1) = - (\alpha + 1) \alpha^n \prod_{k=1}^{n} (3 + \zeta^k + \zeta^{-k}).
It follows that
f(n)=k=1n(3+ζk+ζk)=α2n+1+1αn(α+1). f(n) = \prod_{k=1}^{n} (3 + \zeta^k + \zeta^{-k}) = \frac{\alpha^{2n+1} + 1}{\alpha^n(\alpha + 1)}.
Next, the terms of the Fibonacci sequence satisfy
F2n+5=F2n+4+F2n+3=2F2n+3+F2n+2=3F2n+3F2n+1. F_{2n+5} = F_{2n+4} + F_{2n+3} = 2F_{2n+3} + F_{2n+2} = 3F_{2n+3} - F_{2n+1}.
Letting an=F2n+1a_n = F_{2n+1}, we have the recurrence relation an+2=3an+1ana_{n+2} = 3a_{n+1} - a_n and the conditions a0=1a_0 = 1 and a1=2a_1 = 2. Since the roots to λ23λ+1=0\lambda^2 - 3\lambda + 1 = 0 are α\alpha and 1α\frac{1}{\alpha}, the general term is an=Aαn+B1αna_n = A\alpha^n + B \cdot \frac{1}{\alpha^n} for some constants AA and BB. Using a0=1a_0 = 1 and a1=2a_1 = 2, it is easy to deduce
an=αα+1αn+1α+11αn=α2n+1+1αn(α+1)=f(n). a_n = \frac{\alpha}{\alpha + 1} \cdot \alpha^n + \frac{1}{\alpha + 1} \cdot \frac{1}{\alpha^n} = \frac{\alpha^{2n+1} + 1}{\alpha^n(\alpha + 1)} = f(n).
Therefore, f(n)f(n) is an integer for all positive integers nn.

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.