Maths Olympiad Prep

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, 2011

Algebra Difficulty 5.6 AIME, harder Prove it Vietnam

A sequence of integers (an)(a_n) determined by
a0=1, a1=1andan=6an1+5an2for all n2. a_0 = 1,\ a_1 = -1 \quad \text{and} \quad a_n = 6a_{n-1} + 5a_{n-2} \quad \text{for all } n \ge 2.
Show that a20122010a_{2012} - 2010 is divisible by 20112011.

Solution

Consider the sequence of integers (bn)(b_n) determined by
b0=1, b1=1 and bn=6bn1+2016bn2 for all n2. b_0 = 1,\ b_1 = -1 \text{ and } b_n = 6b_{n-1} + 2016b_{n-2} \text{ for all } n \ge 2.
Clearly, for all n0n \ge 0, we have anbn(mod2011)a_n \equiv b_n \pmod{2011}. (*)
The characteristic equation of sequence (bn)(b_n): x26x2016=0x^2 - 6x - 2016 = 0, or (x48)(x+42)=0(x - 48)(x + 42) = 0.
Consequently, the general term of (bn)(b_n) has the form: bn=C1(42)n+C248nb_n = C_1(-42)^n + C_2 48^n.
By the initial conditions for sequence (bn)(b_n), we obtain
{C1+C2=142C148C2=1. \begin{cases} C_1 + C_2 = 1 \\ 42C_1 - 48C_2 = 1. \end{cases}
Hence C1=4990C_1 = \frac{49}{90} and C2=4190C_2 = \frac{41}{90}. Thus bn=49(42)n+4148n90n0b_n = \frac{49(-42)^n + 41 \cdot 48^n}{90} \quad \forall n \ge 0.
Since 20112011 is a prime, according to the little Fermat theorem we have:
(42)20104820101(mod2011). (-42)^{2010} \equiv 48^{2010} \equiv 1 \pmod{2011}.
Hence 90b2012=49(42)2012+41482012=49(42)2+41482=90b2(mod2011)90b_{2012} = 49 \cdot (-42)^{2012} + 41 \cdot 48^{2012} = 49 \cdot (-42)^2 + 41 \cdot 48^2 = 90b_2 \pmod{2011}.
Consequently b2012b2(mod2011)b_{2012} \equiv b_2 \pmod{2011} (since (90,2011)=1(90, 2011) = 1).
But b2=6b1+2016b0=2010b_2 = 6b_1 + 2016b_0 = 2010, hence b2012=2010(mod2011)b_{2012} = 2010 \pmod{2011}.
Thus a2012=2010(mod2011)a_{2012} = 2010 \pmod{2011} (by means of (*)).

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