Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / /213 of 299

Number theory Difficulty 6.9 National Olympiad Prove it Iran

Let a,b>1a, b > 1 be positive integers. Prove that there are infinitely many positive integers nn such that the following equation has no solution (k,t)(k, t) in positive integers.
φ(an1)=bkbt. \varphi(a^n - 1) = b^k - b^t.

Solution

We first prove the following two lemmas.

Lemma. Let pp be a prime number and b>1b > 1 be an integer such that gcd(p,b)=1\gcd(p, b) = 1. Then, for all positive integers nn;
νp(bn1)νp(n)+C, \nu_p(b^n - 1) \leq \nu_p(n) + C,
for some constant positive integer CC.
Proof. Let dd be the order of bb modulo pp then if nn is not divisible by dd then νp(bn1)=0\nu_p(b^n - 1) = 0 and C=1C = 1 works. On the other hand, if nn is divisible by dd then for all odd pp;
νp(bn1)=νp(bd1)+νp(n)νp(d)<νp(bd1)+νp(n). \nu_p(b^n - 1) = \nu_p(b^d - 1) + \nu_p(n) - \nu_p(d) < \nu_p(b^d - 1) + \nu_p(n).
and C=νp(bd1)C = \nu_p(b^d - 1) has the desired property.
Finally, if p=2p = 2;
ν2(bn1)=ν2(bd1)+ν2(bd+1)+νp(n)νp(d)<ν2(bd1)+ν2(bd+1)+νp(n). \nu_2(b^n-1) = \nu_2(b^d-1)+\nu_2(b^d+1)+\nu_p(n)-\nu_p(d) < \nu_2(b^d-1)+\nu_2(b^d+1)+\nu_p(n).
Letting C=ν2(bd1)+ν2(bd+1)C = \nu_2(b^d - 1) + \nu_2(b^d + 1). Hence, C=max{1,νp(bd1),ν2(bd1)+ν2(bd+1)}C = \max\{1, \nu_p(b^d - 1), \nu_2(b^d - 1) + \nu_2(b^d + 1)\}. This completes our proof.

Lemma 1. Let pp be a prime number and a>1,m>1a > 1, m > 1 be positive integers. Every prime divisor qq of Nm=apm1apm11N_m = \frac{a^{p^m}-1}{a^{p^m-1}-1} is either pp or of the form pmk+1p^m k + 1. In the former case a1(modp)a \equiv 1 \pmod{p}.
Proof. Let c=apm1c = a^{p^{m-1}} then Nm=cp1c1N_m = \frac{c^{p}-1}{c-1}. Then, if qq divides NmN_m then the order of cc mod qq is either pp or 11. In the former case, cp=apm1(modq)c^p = a^{p^m} \equiv 1 \pmod q. Now, the order of aa mod qq divides pmp^m and hence is a power of pp. But if it is not equal to pmp^m then c1(modq)c \equiv 1 \pmod q, contradicting to our assumption. Hence, the order is pmp^m and it must divide q1q-1. In the latter case, c1(modq)c \equiv 1 \pmod q. Hence, Nm=1+c++cp1p0(modq)N_m = 1+c+\cdots+c^{p-1} \equiv p \equiv 0 \pmod q. Thus p=qp=q. Further, it can only happen whenever, c=apm11(modq)c = a^{p^{m-1}} \equiv 1 \pmod q. Since p=qp=q it follows that apm1a1(modp)a^{p^{m-1}} \equiv a \equiv 1 \pmod p, as desired.

Back to our problem. Take a prime pp such that p>b(a1)p > b(a-1) we prove that n=prn = p^r satisfies the statement of the problem for all large rr. Indeed,
apr1=(ap1)(ap21ap1)(apr1apr11)=(ap1)N2Nr. a^{p^r} - 1 = (a^p - 1) \left( \frac{a^{p^2} - 1}{a^p - 1} \right) \cdots \left( \frac{a^{p^r} - 1}{a^{p^{r-1}} - 1} \right) = (a^p - 1) N_2 \cdots N_r.
By the choice of pp there are pair-wise distinct prime numbers q2,,qrq_2, \dots, q_r such that qiq_i divides NiN_i, i=2,,ri = 2, \dots, r. Furthermore, q2qrq_2 \dots q_r divides apr1a^{p^r} - 1 hence, (q21)(qr1)(q_2 - 1) \dots (q_r - 1) divides φ(apr1)\varphi(a^{p^r} - 1). Since qi1q_i - 1 is divisible by pip^i, i=1,,ri = 1, \dots, r it follows that
νp(φ(apr1))2+3++r12r2. \nu_p \left( \varphi (a^{p^r} - 1) \right) \geq 2 + 3 + \dots + r \geq \frac{1}{2} r^2.

Taking s=kts = k - t, this implies that bs1b^s - 1 must be divisible by p12r2p^{\frac{1}{2}r^2}. By our first lemma, νp(bs1)<s+C\nu_p(b^s - 1) < s + C. Hence,
s>p12r2C. s > p^{\frac{1}{2}r^2 - C}.
On the other hand,
apr1>φ(apr1)=bkbt=bt(bs1)>bs1>bp212r2C1. a^{p^r} - 1 > \varphi(a^{p^r} - 1) = b^k - b^t = b^t(b^s - 1) > b^s - 1 > b^{p^2 \frac{1}{2}r^2 - C} - 1.
That is,
apr>bp212r2C, a^{p^r} > b^{p^2 \frac{1}{2}r^2 - C},
It is clear that for all large enough rr, the right side will emulate the left side. Thus, it is enough to take n=prn = p^r for all large enough rr to ensure that there are no such k,tk, t.

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.