Maths Olympiad Prep

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Ukrajina, 2008

Algebra Difficulty 5.6 AIME, harder Prove it Ukraine

(Lishunov Vitalii) 1x−y+1y−z+1z−x=32\frac{1}{x-y} + \frac{1}{y-z} + \frac{1}{z-x} = \frac{3}{2} is true for some real numbers xx, yy, zz. What value may expression 1(x−y)2+1(y−z)2+1(z−x)2\frac{1}{(x-y)^2} + \frac{1}{(y-z)^2} + \frac{1}{(z-x)^2} have?
Answer: 94\frac{9}{4}.

Solution

Let B=1x−y+1y−z+1z−x=32B = \frac{1}{x-y} + \frac{1}{y-z} + \frac{1}{z-x} = \frac{3}{2} and A=1(x−y)2+1(y−z)2+1(z−x)2A = \frac{1}{(x-y)^2} + \frac{1}{(y-z)^2} + \frac{1}{(z-x)^2} then
B2=94=A+2(1(x−y)(y−z)+1(x−y)(z−x)+1(y−z)(z−x)).B^2 = \frac{9}{4} = A + 2\left(\frac{1}{(x-y)(y-z)} + \frac{1}{(x-y)(z-x)} + \frac{1}{(y-z)(z-x)}\right).
Let's rearrange the second summand of the last expression:
1(x−y)(y−z)+1(x−y)(z−x)+1(y−z)(z−x)=(z−x)+(y−z)+(x−y)(x−y)(y−z)(z−x)=0.\frac{1}{(x-y)(y-z)} + \frac{1}{(x-y)(z-x)} + \frac{1}{(y-z)(z-x)} = \frac{(z-x)+(y-z)+(x-y)}{(x-y)(y-z)(z-x)} = 0.
Therefore, A=94A = \frac{9}{4}.

Though it is not required in the problem, we should check that there are numbers xx, yy, zz which satisfy the given condition. Let x=2x=2, y=1y=1, z=0z=0 then (x−y)=1(x - y) = 1, (y−z)=1(y - z) = 1, (z−x)=−2(z - x) = -2, B=1+1−12=32B = 1 + 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{2}, and A=1+1+14=94A = 1 + 1 + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{9}{4}.

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