The answer is yes for part a) and no for part b).
Consider a number a>1 of type 1. If a is a 1-digit number then a=(a−1)+1 is the desired representation since a−1 and 1 are 1-digit numbers, hence type 2 numbers by definition.
Let a have at least two digits. Write it in the form a=u1v1u2v2u3v3… where u1,u2,… and v1,v2,… are its digits at odd and even position respectively. We have u1>0 for the first digit u1, also v1≥u1>0 since a is of type 1.
Now let b=u10u20u30… be the number obtained by replacing all digits at even positions by 0. This is a type 2 number because ui≥0 for all i.
Next, construct number c as follows: delete the first digit u1 from a, then replace all remaining digits u2,u3,… at odd positions by zeros. In other words c=v10v20v30…; the first digit v1 is nonzero. Clearly c is also of type 2, and it has one digit less than b (and a). Now it follows from the rule of addition that a=b+c, so part a) is done.
For part b) we show that the type 2 number 109 is not representable as the sum of two type 1 numbers. Suppose on the contrary that such a representation exists. If one summand is among 1,…,9 then the other is among 100,…,108, and the latter numbers are not of type 1. So let both summands be 2-digit numbers, and let 10u+v be one of them, with 0<u≤v≤9 as 10u+v is of type 1. The other summand is then b=109−(10u+v)=10(10−u)+(9−v). Because 1≤10−u≤9 and 0≤9−v≤8, the digits of b are 10−u and 9−v in this order. However 10−u>9−v because u≤v, hence b is not a type 1 number, contrary to the assumption.