Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / /64 of 100

Combinatorics Difficulty 5.2 AIME, harder Find the answer China

It is given that there are two sets of real numbers A={a1,a2,,a100}A = \{a_1, a_2, \dots, a_{100}\} and B={b1,b2,,b50}B = \{b_1, b_2, \dots, b_{50}\}. If there is a mapping ff from AA to BB such that every element in BB has an inverse image and
f(a1)f(a2)f(a100), f(a_1) \le f(a_2) \le \dots \le f(a_{100}),
then the number of such mappings is:

Pick one

Solution

We might as well suppose b1<b2<<b50b_1 < b_2 < \dots < b_{50}, and divide elements a1,a2,,a100a_1, a_2, \dots, a_{100} in AA into 50 nonempty groups according to their order. Define a mapping f:ABf: A \to B, so that the images of all the elements in the ii-th group are bib_i (i=1,2,,50i = 1, 2, \dots, 50) under the mapping. Obviously, ff satisfies the requirements given in the problem. Furthermore, there is a one-to-one correspondence between all groups so divided and the mappings satisfying the condition. So the number of mappings ff satisfying the requirements is equal to the number of ways dividing AA into 50 groups according to the order of the subscripts. The number of ways dividing AA is C9949C_{99}^{49}.

Then there are, in all, C9949C_{99}^{49} such mappings. Answer: D.

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.