Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / Saudi Arabian Mathematical Competitions /376 of 395

Saudi Arabian Mathematical Competitions

Combinatorics Difficulty 7.2 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Saudi Arabia

Let n≥1n \geq 1 be a fixed positive integer. We consider all the sets SS which consist of sub-sequences of the sequence 0,1,2,…,n0,1,2, \ldots, n satisfying the following conditions:
i) If (ai)i=0k\left(a_{i}\right)_{i=0}^{k} belongs to SS, then a0=0,ak=na_{0}=0, a_{k}=n and ai+1−ai≤2a_{i+1}-a_{i} \leq 2 for all 0≤i≤k−10 \leq i \leq k-1.
ii) If (ai)i=0k\left(a_{i}\right)_{i=0}^{k} and (bj)j=0h\left(b_{j}\right)_{j=0}^{h} both belong to SS, then there exist 0≤i0≤k−10 \leq i_{0} \leq k-1 and 0≤j0≤h−10 \leq j_{0} \leq h-1 such that ai0=bj0a_{i_{0}}=b_{j_{0}} and ai0+1=bj0+1a_{i_{0}+1}=b_{j_{0}+1}.

Find the maximum value of ∣S∣|S| (among all the above-mentioned sets SS ).

Solution

Firstly, denote by AnA_{n} the set of all sub-sequences (ai)i=0k\left(a_{i}\right)_{i=0}^{k} of (0,1,2,…,n)(0,1,2, \ldots, n) such that:
- a0=0,a1=1,ak=na_{0}=0, a_{1}=1, a_{k}=n,
- ai+1−ai≤2a_{i+1}-a_{i} \leq 2 for all 0≤i≤k−10 \leq i \leq k-1.
Obviously, AnA_{n} is one of the sets SS satisfying Conditions i)-ii).
It is also clear that ∣A1∣=∣A2∣=1|A_{1}|=|A_{2}|=1.
If n>2n>2, then for each (ai)i=0k∈An\left(a_{i}\right)_{i=0}^{k} \in A_{n}, let us define F((ai)i=0k)=(ai)i=0k−1F\left(\left(a_{i}\right)_{i=0}^{k}\right)=\left(a_{i}\right)_{i=0}^{k-1}. In so doing, we have clearly obtained a bijection F:An→An−1∪An−2F: A_{n} \rightarrow A_{n-1} \cup A_{n-2}, hence,
∣An∣=∣An−1∣+∣An−2∣ |A_{n}|=|A_{n-1}|+|A_{n-2}|
when n>2n>2. So, ∣An∣|A_{n}| is the nthn^{\text{th}} Fibonacci number, which is denoted by FnF_{n}. We will show that FnF_{n} is the maximum value of ∣S∣|S|, among all the sets SS satisfying Conditions i)-ii). Indeed, for such a set SS, we need only prove that
∣S∣≤Fn. |S| \leq F_{n} .
Let S1=S∩AnS_{1}=S \cap A_{n}. Then S=S1∪(S\S1)S=S_{1} \cup\left(S \backslash S_{1}\right). We define a mapping f:S\S1→Anf: S \backslash S_{1} \rightarrow A_{n} by partitioning every w∈S\S1w \in S \backslash S_{1} into parts of the form ( m,m+2,m+3,…,m+2k)m, m+2, m+3, \ldots, m+2k) or ( m,m+2,m+3,…,m+2k+1m, m+2, m+3, \ldots, m+2k+1 ) in which k≥1k \geq 1 and then ff changes each part by the following rule:
(m,m+2,m+3,…,m+2k)↦(m,m+1,m+2,m+4,m+6,…,m+2k)(m, m+2, m+3, \ldots, m+2k) \mapsto (m, m+1, m+2, m+4, m+6, \ldots, m+2k)
and
(m,m+2,m+3,…,m+2k+1)↦(m,m+1,m+3,m+5,…,m+2k+1)(m, m+2, m+3, \ldots, m+2k+1) \mapsto (m, m+1, m+3, m+5, \ldots, m+2k+1).
We can see that:
- ff is one-to-one.
- The two sequences ww and f(w)f(w) do not satisfy Condition ii); so,
f(w)∉S∀w∈S\S1. f(w) \notin S \quad \forall w \in S \backslash S_{1} .
Hence, S1∩f(S\S1)=∅S_{1} \cap f\left(S \backslash S_{1}\right)=\emptyset. Since S1∪f(S\S1)⊂AnS_{1} \cup f\left(S \backslash S_{1}\right) \subset A_{n}, it follows that
∣S∣=∣S1∪f(S\S1)∣≤∣An∣=Fn |S|=|S_{1} \cup f\left(S \backslash S_{1}\right)| \leq |A_{n}|=F_{n}

Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track puts 2,604 problems in a working order, from Junior Challenge level to the IMO shortlist.

Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.