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Irish Mathematical Olympiad

Geometry Difficulty 6.5 National Olympiad Prove it Ireland

Let ABCABC be an isosceles triangle with ∣AB∣=∣AC∣|AB| = |AC|. The points B′B' and C′C' are on the line BCBC (extended in both directions) such that BB is between B′B' and CC and CC is between BB and C′C'. Moreover, B′BAB'BA and ACC′ACC' are isosceles triangles. Let XX be a point on the line BCBC such that B′B' is not between XX and BB.
Prove that ∣AX∣=∣BX∣|AX| = |BX| if and only if 1∣AB∣=1∣B′X∣+1∣BC′∣\frac{1}{|AB|} = \frac{1}{|B'X|} + \frac{1}{|BC'|}.

Solution

Because ∣B′B∣=∣BA∣=∣AC∣=∣CC′∣|B'B| = |BA| = |AC| = |CC'|, we have ∣B′X∣=∣AB∣+∣BX∣|B'X| = |AB| + |BX| and ∣BC′∣=∣BC∣+∣AB∣|BC'| = |BC| + |AB|. For the first equation we used that BB is between B′B' and XX. To see this, we have to exclude that XX is between BB and B′B' (by assumption, B′B' is not between XX and BB). If ∣AX∣=∣BX∣|AX| = |BX|, XX cannot be between BB and B′B', because the angle ∠CBA\angle CBA is acute. If 1∣AB∣=1∣B′X∣+1∣BC′∣\frac{1}{|AB|} = \frac{1}{|B'X|} + \frac{1}{|BC'|}, we have ∣B′X∣>∣AB∣=∣B′B∣|B'X| > |AB| = |B'B|, hence XX is not between BB and B′B'.
Figure 1
We see now that the equation 1∣AB∣=1∣B′X∣+1∣BC′∣\frac{1}{|AB|} = \frac{1}{|B'X|} + \frac{1}{|BC'|} is equivalent to
1∣AB∣=1∣AB∣+∣BX∣+1∣BC∣+∣AB∣ \frac{1}{|AB|} = \frac{1}{|AB| + |BX|} + \frac{1}{|BC| + |AB|} which rewrites as
(∣AB∣+∣BX∣)(∣BC∣+∣AB∣)=∣AB∣(∣AB∣+∣BX∣)+∣AB∣(∣BC∣+∣AB∣) (|AB| + |BX|)(|BC| + |AB|) = |AB|(|AB| + |BX|) + |AB|(|BC| + |AB|)
which simplifies to ∣BC∣⋅∣BX∣=∣AB∣2|BC| \cdot |BX| = |AB|^2, or equivalently ∣AB∣∣BC∣=∣BX∣∣AB∣\frac{|AB|}{|BC|} = \frac{|BX|}{|AB|}. Because the triangles ABXABX and ABCABC have a common angle at BB, this last equality is equivalent to these two triangles being similar with sides ABAB and BXBX in triangle ABXABX corresponding to sides BCBC and ABAB in triangle ABCABC. Because △ABC\triangle ABC is isosceles, the same is then true for the triangle ABXABX, hence ∣AX∣=∣BX∣|AX| = |BX|. On the other hand, if ∣AX∣=∣BX∣|AX| = |BX|, triangle ABXABX is isosceles and because it shares an angle with △ABC\triangle ABC at BB, both triangles are similar. This finishes the proof of the desired equivalence.

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