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Saudi Arabian Mathematical Competitions, 2015

Number theory Difficulty 5.9 AIME, harder Prove it Saudi Arabia

Let n≥2n \geq 2 be an integer and p1<p2<⋯<pnp_{1} < p_{2} < \cdots < p_{n} prime numbers. Prove that there exists an integer kk relatively prime with p1p2⋯pnp_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{n} and such that gcd⁡(k+p1p2⋯pi, p1p2⋯pn)=1\operatorname{gcd}\left(k + p_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{i},\ p_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{n}\right) = 1 for all i=1,2,…,n−1i = 1, 2, \ldots, n-1.

Solution

The problem is equivalent to proving that kk is relatively prime with p1p2⋯pnp_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{n} and such that for all i=2,…,ni = 2, \ldots, n, none of the integers k, k+p1,…,k+p1⋯pi−1k,\ k + p_{1}, \ldots, k + p_{1} \cdots p_{i-1} is divisible by pip_{i}.

Let i∈{2,…,n}i \in \{2, \ldots, n\}. Notice that pi≥i+1p_{i} \geq i + 1. So the numbers −p1,−p1p2,…,−p1p2⋯pi−1-p_{1}, -p_{1} p_{2}, \ldots, -p_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{i-1} will not cover all the non-zero residues modulo pip_{i}. Let kik_{i} be one of these non-covered non-zero residues. Clearly, none of the numbers ki,ki+p1,…,ki+p1⋯pi−1k_{i}, k_{i} + p_{1}, \ldots, k_{i} + p_{1} \cdots p_{i-1} is congruent to 00 modulo pip_{i}.

This defines k2,k3,…,knk_{2}, k_{3}, \ldots, k_{n} and let k1=1k_{1} = 1. By the Chinese remainder theorem there exists an integer kk such that k≡ki≢0(modpi)k \equiv k_{i} \not\equiv 0 \pmod{p_{i}} for all i=1,2,…,ni = 1, 2, \ldots, n. The integer kk is relatively prime with p1p2⋯pnp_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{n}. On the other hand, for all 1≤j<i≤n1 \leq j < i \leq n, we have k+p1p2⋯pj≡ki+p1p2⋯pj≢0(modpi)k + p_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{j} \equiv k_{i} + p_{1} p_{2} \cdots p_{j} \not\equiv 0 \pmod{p_{i}}.

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