Solution:
Let {Fn}n=1∞={1,1,2,3,5,8,…} be the sequence of Fibonacci numbers. We first claim that an=2Fn+1 for all n∈N. Clearly, this is true for n=1,2. Let k∈N and suppose that the claim is true for n=k and for n=k+1. Then
ak+2=ak+1ak−ak+1−ak+2=(ak+1−1)(ak−1)+1=2Fk+12Fk+1=2Fk+2+1
By strong induction, the claim is proved. Therefore, we now find the remainder when 2F2020+1 is divided by 22. To this end, it is easier to find residues modulo 2 and modulo 11 and process them to get the residue modulo 22 (e.g. through Chinese Remainder Theorem).
Clearly, 2F2020 is even, i.e., 2F2020+1≡1(mod2). We will see later that 2F2020+1≡0(mod11). Therefore, by Chinese Remainder Theorem, a2020=2F2020+1≡11(mod22).
There are several ways to find the residue of 2F2020+1(mod11).
Way 1.1: By Fermat's Little Theorem, 210≡1(mod11). This prompts us to consider the sequence of residues of Fn(mod10) in order to find F2020(mod10):
{Fn(mod10)}n=1∞={1,1,2,3,5,8,3,1,4,5,9,4,3,7,0,7,7,4,1,5,6,1,7,8,5,3,8,1,9,0,9,9,8,7,5,2,7,9,6,5,1,6,7,3,0,3,3,6,9,5,4,9,3,2,5,7,2,9,1,0,…}
We see that the sequence is cyclic with period 60. Therefore, since 2020=60×33+40, we obtain F2020≡5(mod10). Consequently, for some k∈Z,
2F2020+1=210k+5+1≡(210)k25+1≡33≡0(mod11)
Way 1.2: Another way to find F2020(mod10) is to get the residues of F2020 modulo 2 and 5 and process them to find the residue modulo 10. Again, we list down the sequence of residues modulo 2 and 5:
{Fn(mod2)}n=1∞={1,1,0,…} which has period 3, and
{Fn(mod5)}n=1∞={1,1,2,3,0,3,3,1,4,0,4,4,3,2,0,2,2,4,1,0,…}
which has period 20. Since 2020≡1(mod3) and 2020≡0(mod20), then F2020≡1(mod2) and F2020≡0(mod5). Therefore, F2020≡5(mod10) by Chinese Remainder Theorem. Thus, the result holds.
Solution 2:
Inspired by the factorization in (1), we define bn=an−1 for all n∈N. Then b1=b2=2 and (1) simplifies to
bn+2=bn+1bn
We observe that b1=2F1, b2=2F2, and (3) implies b3=2F3. This pattern continues and obviously shows that bn=2Fn for all n∈N. Very similar arguments to Solution 1 will give b2020≡0(mod2) and b2020≡10(mod11). Therefore, by Chinese Remainder Theorem, b2020≡10(mod22). Equivalently, a2020≡11(mod22).
Solution 3:
By bashing, we can list down the residues of {an}n=1∞ (or of {bn}n=1∞ as defined in Solution 2):
{an(mod22)}n=1∞={3,3,5,9,11,15,9,3,17,11,7,17,9,19,13,19,19,17,3,11,21,3,19,15,11,9,15,3,7,13,7,7,15,19,11,5,19,7,21,11,3,21,19,9,13,9,9,21,7,11,17,7,9,5,11,19,5,7,3,13,…}
Since the sequence is cyclic with period 60, and 2020≡40(mod60), then a2020≡11(mod22).