Maths Olympiad Prep

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Combinatorics Difficulty 7.9 National olympiad, round 2 Prove it Turkey

Let pp be a given prime number and n,k2n, k \ge 2 be integers. For each integer i=1,2,,ni = 1, 2, \dots, n, the set SiS_i is constructed by choosing exactly one square from each column of a given p×kp \times k chessboard. Given that SiSj=1|S_i \cap S_j| = 1 for all 1<i<jn1 < i < j \le n and for every pair of squares belonging to different columns there exists an SiS_i containing these two squares. Find all possible pairs (n,k)(n, k) in terms of pp.

Solution

Only (p2,p+1)(p^2, p+1).

Obviously Si=k|S_i| = k for every ii. Also note that given conditions imply that for every pair of squares belonging to different columns there exists a unique SiS_i containing these two squares. Therefore, by a double counting argument we get (k2)p2=n(k2)\binom{k}{2}p^2 = n\binom{k}{2}, which yields n=p2n = p^2.

Let AA and BB be two different squares in the first column. By the given conditions, if we consider the squares in the second column, we see that there exist exactly pp sets containing AA. Now any set containing BB must intersect those pp sets in different columns. Thus, we obtain kp+1k \ge p+1. On the other hand, at each column we must see an intersection as there are pp squares in a column and there are pp sets containing AA. Therefore, we can conclude that k=p+1k = p+1.

We next give an example for the sets when n=p2n = p^2 and k=p+1k = p + 1. In each column numerate the squares from 00 to p1p-1 from bottom to top. Also numerate the columns from left to right as 0,1,,p0, 1, \dots, p. For any a,b{0,1,,p1}a, b \in \{0, 1, \dots, p-1\} let Sa,bS_{a,b} be the set containing aa from column 00 and b+aib + ai (mod pp) from column ii for i=1,2,,pi = 1, 2, \dots, p.

Note that it is enough to verify that any two of those sets have exactly one common square. Let a,b,c{0,1,,p1}a, b, c \in \{0, 1, \dots, p-1\}. Then b+aic+ai(modp)    bc(modp)    b=cb + ai \equiv c + ai \pmod p \iff b \equiv c \pmod p \iff b = c. So Sa,bSa,c=1|S_{a,b} \cap S_{a,c}| = 1 for bcb \ne c.

Let a1a2{0,1,,p1}a_1 \ne a_2 \in \{0, 1, \dots, p-1\}. b+a1ic+a2i(modp)    i(a1a2)1(cb)(modp)b+a_1i \equiv c+a_2i \pmod p \iff i \equiv (a_1-a_2)^{-1}(c-b) \pmod p. Since pp is prime, that inverse always exists and that ii is unique. Thus, Sa1,bSa2,c=1|S_{a_1,b} \cap S_{a_2,c}| = 1 for all a1a2a_1 \ne a_2, bb and cc. The solution is completed.

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