Let m be a positive integer and consider the infinite set of pairs (Fk,Fk+1), for k∈N. By the pigeonhole principle, there exists a pair (a,b) of integers 0≤a,b≤m−1 and an infinite sequence of integers 0<k1<k2<⋯ such that
(Fki,Fki+1)≡(a,b)modm, for all i≥1.
Therefore
(Fki−1,Fki)=(Fki+1−Fki,Fki)≡(b−a,a)modm, for all i≥1.
We keep descending in this way until we get
(Fki−k1+2,Fki−k1+3)≡(F2,F3)≡(1,2)modm, for all i≥1.
Let ni=ki−k1+2, for all i≥1. Clearly, the infinite sequence 2=n1<n2<⋯ is increasing and we have
Fni+2≡F2+2≡3modm,Fni+1+1≡F3+1≡3modm and Fni+2≡Fni+1+Fni≡F3+F2≡3modm