AlgebraDifficulty 5.5AIME, harderProve itUnited States
Problem:
Let {an} and {bn} be sequences defined recursively by a0=2;b0=2, and an+1=an1+an2+bn2−bn; bn+1=bn1+an2+bn2+an. Find the ternary (base 3) representation of a4 and b4.
Solution
Solution:
Note first that 1+an2+bn2=32n. The proof is by induction; the base case follows trivially from what is given. For the inductive step, note that 1+an+12+bn+12=1+an2(1+an2+bn2)+bn2−2anbn1+an2+bn2+bn2(1+an2+bn2)+an2+2anbn1+an2+bn2=1+(an2+bn2)(1+an2+bn2)+an2+bn2=(1+an2+bn2)2. Invoking the inductive hypothesis, we see that 1+an+12+bn+12=(32n)2=32n+1, as desired.
The quickest way to finish from here is to consider a sequence of complex numbers {zn} defined by zn=an+bni for all nonnegative integers n. It should be clear that z0=2+2i and zn+1=zn(32n+i). Therefore, z4=(2+2i)(320+i)(321+i)(322+i)(323+i). This product is difficult to evaluate in the decimal number system, but in ternary the calculation is a cinch! To speed things up, we will use balanced ternary, in which the three digits allowed are −1,0, and 1 rather than 0,1, and 2. Let x+yi=(320+i)(321+i)(322+i)(323+i), and consider the balanced ternary representation of x and y. For all 0≤j≤15, let xj denote the digit in the 3j place of x, let yj denote the digit in the 3j place of y, and let b(j) denote the number of ones in the binary representation of j. It should be clear that xj=−1 if b(j)≡2(mod4), xj=0 if b(j)≡1(mod2), and xj=1 if b(j)≡0(mod4). Similarly, yj=−1 if b(j)≡1(mod4), yj=0 if b(j)≡0(mod2), and yj=1 if b(j)≡3(mod4). Converting to ordinary ternary representation, we see that x=2212112211220013 and y=1100222022121203. It remains to note that a4=2x−2y and b4=2x+2y and perform the requisite arithmetic to arrive at the answer above.
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