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Number theory Difficulty 5.6 AIME, harder Prove it Spain

Let p,np, n be positive integers such that pp is prime and p<np < n. If pp divides n+1n+1 and ([np],(p1)!)=1\left(\left[\frac{n}{p}\right], (p-1)!\right) = 1, then prove that p[np]2p \cdot \left[\frac{n}{p}\right]^2 divides (np)[np]\binom{n}{p} - \left[\frac{n}{p}\right].
(Here [x][x] represents the integer part of the real number xx.)

Solution

Since pn+1p \mid n + 1, then pn+1pp \mid n + 1 - p. So, there exists kNk \in \mathbb{N} such that n=kp+p1n = k p + p - 1 and np=k\left\lfloor \frac{n}{p} \right\rfloor = k. Now, we have
(np)np=(kp+p1p)k=(kp+p1)(kp+p2)(kp+1)(kp)p!k=k(kp+1)(kp+2)(kp+p1)k(p1)!(p1)! \begin{aligned} \binom{n}{p} - \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p} \right\rfloor &= \binom{k p + p - 1}{p} - k \\ &= \frac{(k p + p - 1)(k p + p - 2) \dots (k p + 1)(k p)}{p!} - k \\ &= \frac{k(k p + 1)(k p + 2) \dots (k p + p - 1) - k(p - 1)!}{(p - 1)!} \end{aligned}

=k(kpr+(p1)!)k(p1)!(p1)!=k2pr(p1)!N = \frac{k(k \cdot p \cdot r + (p-1)! ) - k(p-1)!}{(p-1)!} = \frac{k^2 \cdot p \cdot r}{(p-1)!} \in \mathbb{N}
Since ([np],(p1)!)=1\left(\left[\frac{n}{p}\right], (p-1)!\right) = 1, then (p1)!(p-1)! divides rr and therefore (np)[np]\binom{n}{p} - \left[\frac{n}{p}\right] is divisible by p[np]2p \cdot \left[\frac{n}{p}\right]^2 as we wanted to prove. \square

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.