Let S be a given set of real numbers such that: i) 1∈S, ii) for any a,b∈S (not necessarily different), then a−b∈S, iii) for a∈S, a=0 then a1∈S. Prove that for any a,b∈S then ab∈S.
Solution
If a=0∈S or a=1∈S then for any b∈S we have ab∈S which is obvious. So we can suppose that a,b∈/{0;1}. From 1∈S, a∈S we have 1−a∈S→(1−a)−1=−a∈S, then b−(−a)=a+b∈S. We also have a−1∈S so a1,a−11∈S then a−11−a1=a(a−1)1∈S→a(a−1)∈S. Since a∈S, a(a−1)∈S then a2=a(a−1)+a∈S. Similarly, we also have b2∈S. Thus a,b∈S→a+b∈S→(a+b)2∈S. Finally, (a+b)2−a2=2ab+b2∈S and (2ab+b2)−b2=2ab∈S which implies that 2ab1+2ab1=ab1∈S→ab∈S.
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