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Algebra Difficulty 5.0 AIME Prove it China

Let ff: RR\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} be a function such that f(0)=1f(0) = 1 and for any xx, yRy \in \mathbb{R}, f(xy+1)=f(x)f(y)f(y)x+2f(xy+1) = f(x)f(y) - f(y) - x + 2 holds. Then f(x)=f(x) = \underline{\hspace{2cm}}.

Solution

Since for any xx, yRy \in \mathbb{R}, f(xy+1)=f(x)f(y)f(y)x+2f(xy+1) = f(x)f(y) - f(y) - x + 2, we have
f(yx+1)=f(y)f(x)f(x)y+2. f(yx + 1) = f(y)f(x) - f(x) - y + 2.
Thus,
f(x)f(y)f(y)x+2=f(y)f(x)f(x)y+2, f(x)f(y) - f(y) - x + 2 = f(y)f(x) - f(x) - y + 2,
that is,

Put y=0y = 0, we obtain f(x)=x+1f(x) = x + 1.

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