Let be positive integers. We know that for any positive integer where is a square number, at least one of the numbers is also a square. Prove that .
Solutions — 2
Solution 1
Lemma. If is a polynomial with integer coefficients and a square leading coefficient which for infinitely many numbers , is a square number, then there exists a which
Assume has the following representation
According to the assumptions, there exists an integer number which
Set .
Since is a square number by the assumption one of the numbers must be a square.
For every integer define polynomial by the following equation.
So is a square for an integer . Now put in these polynomials. By applying pigeonhole principle two of these 's are equal so are square numbers for some . If goes to infinity, for each there is a triple , which are square numbers. Since there are only finite number of these triples so there are infinite numbers such that they have same triples.
Define polynomial such that
Since are squares so is a square number too. Also because are polynomials of degree 2 with the same leading coefficient then is a polynomial of degree 4 with a square leading coefficient.
The lemma suggests that there exists a polynomial of degree 2 such that
also
by putting together
Let be the greatest common divisor of so
Notice that are polynomials of degree 2 so either of are constant or of degree one. If they are constant should be a multiple of each other but they have same leading coefficients then they are equal which is a contradiction because we chose different . So should be a constant but for infinite integers , is a square number so for some , which because are positive integers and then can't be zero.
so . If take
so without loss of generality, take
by comparing coefficients
from the last equation so by putting this into the first equation
then
and we are done.
Solution 2
As the first solution take . So for an integer , is a square number. i.e.
is a square.
by subtracting these two equalities
By the assumption there is a positive integer which
so by putting this in (2)
Let be a prime number. Assume that . By the equality divides the right hand side.
If divides both of the numbers in the parentheses
By subtracting
So only divides one of these numbers and by assuming
Notice that the right hand side is approximately a polynomial of degree one in terms of and it's a contradiction
For large enough prime number the left hand side is a positive integer so by taking square of both sides.
This inequality says that a polynomial of degree four with a positive leading coefficient is a negative number for infinite prime numbers which is a contradiction. Notice that there are only possibilities for so for infinite prime numbers there is an integer that these equalities hold. ■