Let a, b be non-negative real numbers. Prove the inequality b2+1a+a2+1b≥ab+1a+b and find when the equality holds.
Solution
It is evident that the inequality under consideration becomes an equality when a=0, b=0 or a=b. To prove that otherwise the strong inequality holds, it suffices to deal with the case a>b>0 and (after removing the fractions) to show that aa2+1+bb2+1>(a+b)a2+1 Distributing the right-hand side and regrouping the terms we get aa2+1(ab+1−b2+1)>bb2+1(a2+1−ab+1) Multiplying the differences of the square roots by their sums as the denominators of new installed fractions, we obtain aa2+1⋅ab+1+b2+1b(a−b)>bb2+1⋅a2+1+ab+1a(a−b) Dividing both sides by the positive number ab(a−b) and removing the fractions again, we finally arrive at an equivalent inequality a2+1(a2+1+ab+1)>b2+1(b2+1+ab+1) which easily follows by an easy comparison of the both sides "term by term" (because our assumption a>b implies that a2+1>b2+1). This completes the proof of the given inequality. As we have shown, the only cases of the equality are a=0, b=0 and a=b.
Another solution: We exclude the cases a=0 and b=0 (when the inequality becomes an equality) from our considerations. Let us apply a Cauchy-Schwarz inequality in the form (ua+vb)(au+bv)≥(a+b)2, with positive coefficients u=b2+1 and v=a2+1: (b2+1a+a2+1b)(ab2+1+ba2+1)≥(a+b)2.(1) Another Cauchy-Schwarz inequality yields an upper bound for the second factor from the-left hand side of (1): ab2+1+ba2+1=aab2+a+ba2b+b≤≤a+bab2+a+a2b+b=a+b(a+b)(ab+1)=(a+b)ab+1. Consequently, the first factor in (1) has a lower bound b2+1a+a2+1b≥ab2+1+ba2+1(a+b)2≥ab+1a+b, which is the desired inequality. Since (1) becomes an equality if and only if the positive coefficients u and v are the same, i.e. b2+1=a2+1 in our situation, the equality a=b is the third (and last) case (next to a=0 and b=0 from the introductory sentence) when the proven inequality holds as an equality.
Another solution: Let us exclude the obvious cases a=0,b=0,a=b and let us transform the (strong) inequality under consideration into the following equivalent form: a+ba⋅b2+11+a+bb⋅a2+11>ab+11(2) The last left-hand side can be read as that of the (strong) Jensen inequality pf(α)+qf(β)>f(ρα+qβ),(3) with positive coefficients p=a/(a+b) and q=b/(a+b) (which satisfy p+q=1 as required), applied to the function f(x)=1/x at the points α=b2+1 and β=a2+1. Since the function f is strictly convex on the interval (0,+∞) and since the points α and β are assumed to be distinct, the Jensen inequality (3) holds. It remains to verify that also the right-hand sides of (2) and (3) are identical. This is easy: f(pα+qβ)=f(a+ba(b2+1)+a+bb(a2+1))==f(a+ba+ab2+b+a2b)=f(ab+1)=ab+11.
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