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IMO Team Selection Test 1

Algebra Difficulty 7.3 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Netherlands

The sequence a0,a1,a2,…a_0, a_1, a_2, \dots of integers is defined by a0=3a_0 = 3 and
an+1−an=n(an−1) a_{n+1} - a_n = n(a_n - 1)
for all n≥0n \ge 0. Determine all integers m≥2m \ge 2 for which gcd⁡(m,an)=1\gcd(m, a_n) = 1 for all n≥0n \ge 0.

Solution

The sequence is given by the formula an=2⋅n!+1a_n = 2 \cdot n! + 1 for n≥0n \ge 0. (We use the usual definition 0!=10! = 1, which satisfies 1!=1⋅0!1! = 1 \cdot 0!, in the same way we have n!=n⋅(n−1)!n! = n \cdot (n-1)! for other positive integers nn.) We will prove the equality by induction. We have a0=3a_0 = 3, which equals 2⋅0!+12 \cdot 0! + 1. Now suppose for certain k≥0k \ge 0 that ak=2⋅k!+1a_k = 2 \cdot k! + 1, then
ak+1=ak+k(ak−1)=2⋅k!+1+k⋅2⋅k!=2⋅k!⋅(1+k)+1=2⋅(k+1)!+1. a_{k+1} = a_k + k(a_k - 1) = 2 \cdot k! + 1 + k \cdot 2 \cdot k! = 2 \cdot k! \cdot (1+k) + 1 = 2 \cdot (k+1)! + 1.
This finishes the induction.

We see that ana_n is always odd, hence gcd⁡(2,an)=1\gcd(2, a_n) = 1 for all nn. It follows also that gcd⁡(2i,an)=1\gcd(2^i, a_n) = 1 for all i≥1i \ge 1. Hence, m=2im = 2^i with i≥1i \ge 1 satisfies the condition. Now consider an m≥2m \ge 2 which is not a power of two. Then mm has an odd prime divisor, say pp. We will show that pp is a divisor of ap−3a_{p-3}. By Wilson's theorem, we have (p−1)!≡−1(modp)(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod{p}. Hence,
2⋅(p−3)!≡2⋅(p−1)!⋅((p−2)(p−1))−1≡2⋅−1⋅(−2⋅−1)−1≡2⋅−1⋅2−1≡−1(modp). \begin{aligned} 2 \cdot (p-3)! &\equiv 2 \cdot (p-1)! \cdot ((p-2)(p-1))^{-1} \\ &\equiv 2 \cdot -1 \cdot (-2 \cdot -1)^{-1} \equiv 2 \cdot -1 \cdot 2^{-1} \equiv -1 \pmod{p}. \end{aligned}
So indeed we have ap−3=2⋅(p−3)!+1≡0(modp)a_{p-3} = 2 \cdot (p-3)! + 1 \equiv 0 \pmod{p}. We conclude that mm does not satisfy the condition. Hence, the only values of mm satisfying the condition are powers of two. □\square

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