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Number theory Difficulty 8.1 Shortlist Prove it Estonia

Let p,qp, q be prime numbers and aa be an integer such that p>2p > 2 and a1(modq)a \neq 1 \pmod{q} but ap1(modq)a^p \equiv 1 \pmod{q}. Prove that
(1+a1)(1+a2)(1+ap1)1(modq). (1+a^1)(1+a^2)\dots(1+a^{p-1}) \equiv 1 \pmod{q}.

Solutions — 3

Solution 1

As ap1(modq)a^p \equiv 1 \pmod{q} while a1(modq)a \neq 1 \pmod{q}, the case q=2q = 2 is impossible. Thus, the desired equation is equivalent to
(1+a0)(1+a1)(1+a2)(1+ap1)2(modq).(13) (1 + a^0)(1 + a^1)(1 + a^2)\dots(1 + a^{p-1}) \equiv 2 \pmod{q}. \quad (13)
Removing parentheses in the l.h.s. of (13) gives all monomials of the form ai1++ika^{i_1+\dots+i_k} where {i1,,ik}{0,1,,p1}\{i_1, \dots, i_k\} \subseteq \{0, 1, \dots, p-1\}. As ap1(modq)a^p \equiv 1 \pmod{q}, the sums in the exponents can be replaced with their remainders modulo pp. We claim that each possible remainder is produced the same number of times provided that we leave out the empty set and the whole set {0,1,,p1}\{0, 1, \dots, p-1\}. Indeed, for each tuple (i1,,ik)(i_1, \dots, i_k) where 0<k<p0 < k < p, we can find ll such that kl1(modp)kl \equiv 1 \pmod{p} and form a new tuple (i1+l,,ik+l)(i_1 + l, \dots, i_k + l) for which (i1+l)++(ik+l)i1++ik+1(modp)(i_1 + l) + \dots + (i_k + l) \equiv i_1 + \dots + i_k + 1 \pmod{p}. Clearly different tuples lead to different new tuples. Thus, for any remainder ii, there are at least as many tuples with sum congruent to i+1i+1 as tuples with sum congruent to ii. Doing this pp times, we get back to the beginning and hence there are equal number of tuples giving each remainder.
Let this constant number of tuples be cc. Then (13) is equivalent to
a0+a0+1++(p1)+c(a0+a1++ap1)2(modq). a^0 + a^{0+1+\dots+(p-1)} + c(a^0 + a^1 + \dots + a^{p-1}) \equiv 2 \pmod{q}.
As p=(p1)p2=0+1++(p1)p = \frac{(p-1)p}{2} = 0 + 1 + \dots + (p-1), we have a0+1++(p1)1(modq)a^{0+1+\dots+(p-1)} \equiv 1 \pmod{q}. Moreover, as (a0+a1++ap1)(a1)=ap10(modq)(a^0 + a^1 + \dots + a^{p-1})(a-1) = a^p - 1 \equiv 0 \pmod{q} while a10(modq)a-1 \neq 0 \pmod{q}, we also have a0+a1++ap10(modq)a^0 + a^1 + \dots + a^{p-1} \equiv 0 \pmod{q}. Consequently, (13) is equivalent to 1+12(modq)1+1 \equiv 2 \pmod{q} which holds trivially.

Solution 2

Like in Solution 1, prove that qq is odd. By assumptions, the order of aa modulo qq divides pp and does not equal 1. Hence the order of aa modulo qq must be pp. Thus 1,a,a2,,ap11, a, a^2, \dots, a^{p-1} are pairwise incongruent modulo qq. This implies that the residue classes of 1,a,a2,,ap11, a, a^2, \dots, a^{p-1} are all distinct roots of the polynomial xp1x^p - 1 in Zq\mathbb{Z}_q. Thus in Zq\mathbb{Z}_q we have xp1=(x1)(xa)(xa2)(xap1)x^p - 1 = (x-1)(x-a)(x-a^2)\dots(x-a^{p-1}). After substituting x=1x = -1 and dividing all factors in the r.h.s. except the first one by 1-1, we obtain an equivalent congruence 22(1+a)(1+a2)(1+ap1)(modq)-2 \equiv -2(1+a)(1+a^2)\dots(1+a^{p-1}) \pmod{q}. As q2q \neq 2, division by 2-2 is possible and gives the desired congruence.

Solution 3

Rewrite each factor 1+ai1 + a^i in the form 1a2i1ai\frac{1-a^{2i}}{1-a^i}. Since p1p-1 is even and ap1(modq)a^p \equiv 1 \pmod q, we obtain
(1a2)(1a4)(1a2(p1))=(1a2)(1a4)(1ap1)(1ap+1)(1ap+3)(1a2p2)(1a2)(1a4)(1ap1)(1a1)(1a3)(1ap2)=(1a1)(1a2)(1ap1)(modq). \begin{aligned} & (1 - a^2)(1 - a^4)\dots(1 - a^{2(p-1)}) \\ &= (1 - a^2)(1 - a^4)\dots(1 - a^{p-1})(1 - a^{p+1})(1 - a^{p+3})\dots(1 - a^{2p-2}) \\ &\equiv (1 - a^2)(1 - a^4)\dots(1 - a^{p-1})(1 - a^1)(1 - a^3)\dots(1 - a^{p-2}) \\ &= (1 - a^1)(1 - a^2)\dots(1 - a^{p-1}) \pmod{q}. \end{aligned}
As ap1(modq)a^p \equiv 1 \pmod q, the least exponent ii for which ai1(modq)a^i \equiv 1 \pmod q must divide pp; as a≢1(modq)a \not\equiv 1 \pmod q, the least exponent must equal pp. Therefore none of the factors 1a1,1a2,,1ap11-a^1, 1-a^2, \dots, 1-a^{p-1} is divisible by qq. This means that the congruence above can be reduced by these factors, i.e.,
(1a2)(1a4)(1a2(p1))(1a1)(1a2)(1ap1)(1a1)(1a2)(1ap1)(1a1)(1a2)(1ap1)(modq). \frac{(1 - a^2)(1 - a^4)\dots(1 - a^{2(p-1)})}{(1 - a^1)(1 - a^2)\dots(1 - a^{p-1})} \equiv \frac{(1 - a^1)(1 - a^2)\dots(1 - a^{p-1})}{(1 - a^1)(1 - a^2)\dots(1 - a^{p-1})} \pmod{q}.
This proves the claim.

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