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Local Mathematical Competitions

Number theory Difficulty 7.2 National Olympiad, round 2 Prove it Romania

Determine all polynomials P∈Z[X]P \in \mathbb{Z}[X] such that there exists k∈N∗k \in \mathbb{N}^*, so that for all primes qq, P(q)P(q) has at most kk distinct prime divisors.

Solution

Clearly a constant non-null polynomial PP fulfills the requirements, so we shall assume in the sequel deg⁡P≥1\deg P \ge 1. Before further proceeding with the solution, we state the following "folklore" preliminaries.
(1) Dirichlet's Theorem. The arithmetic progression (an+b)n∈N(an + b)_{n \in \mathbb{N}} with a∈N∗a \in \mathbb{N}^*, b∈Z∗b \in \mathbb{Z}^*, (a,b)=1(a, b) = 1, contains infinitely many primes.
(2) "Fundamental" property of integer polynomials. For any f∈Z[X]f \in \mathbb{Z}[X] and any a,b∈Za, b \in \mathbb{Z} we have a−b∣f(a)−f(b)a - b \mid f(a) - f(b).
Claim. P(0)=0P(0) = 0. We proceed by contradiction, thus assume P(0)≠0P(0) \ne 0.
We will prove by induction on kk the following statement
*For any k∈N∗k \in \mathbb{N}^* there exists a prime p>∣P(0)∣p > |P(0)| such that P(p)P(p) has at least kk distinct prime factors.*
For k=1k=1, there exists a prime p1>∣P(0)∣p_1 > |P(0)| such that ∣P(p1)∣≠1|P(p_1)| \ne 1, otherwise for all such primes pp we would have P(p)2=1P(p)^2 = 1 and thus the polynomial P(X)2−1P(X)^2 - 1 has infinitely many roots, thus it is the null polynomial, hence P(X)≡1(modp)P(X) \equiv 1 \pmod{p} or P(X)≡−1(modp)P(X) \equiv -1 \pmod{p}, contradicting deg⁡P≥1\deg P \ge 1. Therefore P(p1)P(p_1) has at least one prime factor, so the statement is proven for k=1k=1.
Let pkp_k be a prime with the property pk>∣P(0)∣p_k > |P(0)| and P(pk)P(p_k) has at least kk distinct prime factors. Let us notice that (pk,P(pk))=1(p_k, P(p_k)) = 1, since from the "fundamental" property we have P(pk)≡P(0)(modpk)P(p_k) \equiv P(0) \pmod{p_k} and since pk>∣P(0)∣p_k > |P(0)| and it is a prime, the conclusion follows. The arithmetic progression (nP(pk)2+pk)n∈N(nP(p_k)^2 + p_k)_{n \in \mathbb{N}} (according to Dirichlet's Theorem) contains infinitely many primes. Let pk+1=sP(pk)2+pkp_{k+1} = sP(p_k)^2 + p_k be such a prime. Then P(pk+1)≡P(pk)(modP(pk)2)P(p_{k+1}) \equiv P(p_k) \pmod{P(p_k)^2}, thus there exists tt such that P(pk+1)=P(pk)(1+tP(pk))P(p_{k+1}) = P(p_k)(1 + tP(p_k)). From this it is obvious that P(pk+1)P(p_{k+1}) has at least one more prime factor than P(pk)P(p_k). Since P(pk)P(p_k) had at least kk distinct prime factors, it follows that P(pk+1)P(p_{k+1}) has at least k+1k+1 prime factors.
Thus the statement is proven and we get that the assumption P(0)≠0P(0) \ne 0 is false. From P(0)=0P(0) = 0 we deduce there exists mm so that P(X)=XmQ(X)P(X) = X^m Q(X) with Q(0)≠0Q(0) \ne 0. If QQ would be nonconstant, arguing the same as in the above, we again obtain a contradiction.
We conclude the only solutions are P(X)=cXmP(X) = cX^m, for some m∈Nm \in \mathbb{N} and c∈Z∗c \in \mathbb{Z}^*.

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