Let P(x) and Q(x) be real polynomials such that ⌊P(x)⌋=⌊Q(x)⌋ for all x∈R.
Suppose P(x)=Q(x). Then P(x)−Q(x) is a nonzero polynomial, so P(x)−Q(x) is not identically zero. Thus, there exists x0∈R such that P(x0)=Q(x0).
Let d=P(x0)−Q(x0). Then d=0.
Consider the function f(x)=P(x)−Q(x). Since f(x) is a nonzero polynomial, it is continuous and unbounded (unless it is constant, in which case d=0 everywhere).
Let ε=∣d∣/2>0. By continuity, there exists δ>0 such that for all x with ∣x−x0∣<δ, ∣P(x)−Q(x)−d∣<ε, i.e., ∣P(x)−Q(x)∣>∣d∣/2 in a neighborhood of x0.
Now, since ⌊P(x)⌋=⌊Q(x)⌋ for all x, it must be that P(x) and Q(x) are always in the same unit interval, i.e., P(x)−Q(x)∈(−1,1) for all x.
But we have found a neighborhood of x0 where ∣P(x)−Q(x)∣>∣d∣/2. If ∣d∣≥1, then ∣P(x)−Q(x)∣>1/2 in a neighborhood, and for some x it will exceed 1, contradicting P(x)−Q(x)∈(−1,1) for all x.
If 0<∣d∣<1, then P(x0) and Q(x0) are in the same unit interval, but since P(x)−Q(x) is a nonzero polynomial, it is not constant, so for large x, ∣P(x)−Q(x)∣ will exceed 1, again contradicting P(x)−Q(x)∈(−1,1) for all x.
Therefore, P(x)−Q(x)=0 for all x, i.e., P=Q.