Maths Olympiad Prep

Library / /1079 of 1394

, 2019

Combinatorics Difficulty 5.6 AIME, harder Prove it United States

Problem:

There is a unique function f:NRf: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} such that f(1)>0f(1)>0 and such that
dnf(d)f(nd)=1 \sum_{d \mid n} f(d) f\left(\frac{n}{d}\right)=1
for all n1n \geq 1. What is f(20182019)f\left(2018^{2019}\right) ?

Solution

Solution:

Fix any prime pp, and let an=f(pn)a_n=f\left(p^n\right) for n0n \geq 0. Notice that using the relation for pnp^n, we obtain
i=0naiani=1 \sum_{i=0}^{n} a_i a_{n-i}=1
which means that if we let g(x)=n0anxng(x)=\sum_{n \geq 0} a_n x^n, then g(x)2=1+x+x2+=11xg(x)^2=1+x+x^2+\cdots=\frac{1}{1-x} as a generating function. Thus g(x)=(1x)12g(x)=(1-x)^{-\frac{1}{2}}, and this is well-known to have generating function with coefficients an=(2nn)4na_n=\frac{\binom{2 n}{n}}{4^{n}}. One way to see this is using the Taylor series and then reorganizing terms; it is also intimately related to the generating function for the Catalan numbers. In particular, ana_n is independent of our choice of pp.

Now if we define f0(n)=pnavp(n)f_0(n)=\prod_{p \mid n} a_{v_p(n)}, then we see that f=f0f=f_0 on the prime powers.

If we define the Dirichlet convolution of two functions χ1,χ2:NR\chi_1, \chi_2: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} as χ3\chi_3 such that
χ3(n)=dnχ1(d)χ2(nd) \chi_3(n)=\sum_{d \mid n} \chi_1(d) \chi_2\left(\frac{n}{d}\right)
then it is well-known that multiplicative functions (χ(m)χ(n)=χ(mn)\chi(m) \chi(n)=\chi(m n) if gcd(m,n)\operatorname{gcd}(m, n), so e.g. ϕ(n)\phi(n), the Euler totient function) convolve to a multiplicative function.

In particular, f0f_0 is a multiplicative function by definition (it is equivalent to only define it at prime powers then multiply), so the convolution of f0f_0 with itself is multiplicative. By definition of ana_n, the convolution of f0f_0 with itself equals 1 at all prime powers. Thus by multiplicativity, it equals the constant function 1 everywhere.

Two final things to note: f0(1)=a0=1>0f_0(1)=a_0=1>0, and ff satisfying the conditions in the problem statement is indeed unique (proceed by induction on nn that f(n)f(n) is determined uniquely and that the resulting algorithm for computing ff gives a well-defined function). Therefore f0f_0, satisfying those same conditions, must equal ff.

At last, we have
f(p2019)=f0(p2019)=(40382019)42019 f\left(p^{2019}\right)=f_0\left(p^{2019}\right)=\frac{\binom{4038}{2019}}{4^{2019}}
so
f(20182019)=f(22019)f(10092019)=(40382019)244038=(40382019)228076 f\left(2018^{2019}\right)=f\left(2^{2019}\right) f\left(1009^{2019}\right)=\frac{\binom{4038}{2019}^{2}}{4^{4038}}=\frac{\binom{4038}{2019}^{2}}{2^{8076}}

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Source: MathNet, licensed CC-BY-4.0. Statement reproduced verbatim; metadata (topic, difficulty) added by this project.