Let p be a prime number. Prove that k=0∑p(−1)k(kp)(kp+k)≡−1(modp3)
Solution
The sum ∑k=0p(−1)k(kp)(kp+k) is the coefficient of xp in the expansion of k∑(kp)(x−1)p+k. This can be rewritten as {k=0∑p(kp)(x−1)j}(x−1)p=xp(x−1)p Hence the sum is actually (−1)p=−1. Hence k=0∑p(−1)k(kp)(kp+k)≡−1(modp3) clearly holds.
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