We prove a stronger statement, that ∣px+q+x8∣≥1 for one of x∈{1,2,4}. Let us write:
f(x)=px+q+x8
We compare f(2) to the linear interpolation of f(1) and f(4), which is:
32f(1)+31f(4)=(32+34)p+(32+31)q+328+312=2p+q+6=f(2)+2.
Subtracting one from each side:
32(f(1)−1)+31(f(4)−1)=f(2)+1.
Now each side of these equations is either non-negative, or negative.
If the left hand side is non-negative, then:
32(f(1)−1)+31(f(4)−1)≥0.
This implies one of the terms in the average is non-negative, and so at least one of f(1)≥1 or f(4)≥1.
If on the other hand the right hand side is negative, then f(2)<−1.
In either case, we have found x with ∣f(x)∣≥1 as we were required to prove.
Remark: This inequality is best possible. Suppose we take p=2 and q=−9. Then, for 1≤x≤4:
1−f(x)=1−2x+9−x8=x2(x−1)(4−x)≥0.