Find all functions f:R→R such that for any two real numbers x and y, f(2xy)2+f(f(x)2−y2)2=f(x2+y2)2.
Solution
Obviously, the constant function f(x)=0 is an answer. Let f be a non-constant function satisfying the problem. Define g to be g(x)=f(x)2 for all x. Since f(x)2≥0, g would always be non-negative. Let P denote the assertion that g(2xy)+g(g(x)−y2)=g(x2+y2) For every a≥b≥0, there exists x0,y0 where x02+y02=b and 2x0y0=a. Hence P(x0,y0)→g(b)−g(a)=g(g(x)−y2)≥0 So g is an increasing function on non-negative numbers, which mixed with the non-negativity of g results in g(0)≥0⟹g(g(0))≥g(0)≥0. P(0,0)→g(0)+g(g(0))=g(0)⟹0≤g(0)≤(g(0))=0⟹g(0)=0 And by P(21,−y) and P(21,y) we have g(−y)+g(g(21)−y2)=g(41+y2)=g(y)+g(g(21)−y2)⟹g(y)=g(−y) Take x to be a real number, it suffices to prove that g(x)=x2 and then f(x)=±x would satisfy the problem. Since g is an even function, by proving that g(x)=x2 for x≥0, the same would be proven for x<0; hence it suffices to prove that g(x)=x2 for x>0. Since g(x)≥0, there exists y in which y2=g(x). P(x,y) yields in g(2xy)=g(2xy)+g(g(x)−g(x))=g(x2+y2) If we prove g to be an injective function, this will result in 2xy=x2+y2⟹x=y⟹x2=g(x) which proves our point, so it's left to prove that g is injective. For this purpose, first we prove that g(a)=0⟺a=0. Suppose the contrary: There exists a>0 in which g(a)=0 and let Q(a) denote this proposition, also there exists b>0 satisfying g(b)>0. g is increasing, hence g(x)=0 for all 0≤x≤a. Let y=a and x=min(a,2a); we clearly have ⎩⎨⎧x≤a⟹g(x)=0y2=a⟹g(−y2)=g(y2)=02xy≤22ay=a⟹g(2xy)=0 By P(x,y) we conclude g(2xy)+g(g(x)−y2)=g(0−y2)=0=g(x2+y2)=g(a+x2) So x=2a⟺a≥2a⟺a≥41 and x=a⟺a≤41. In other words, if a≥41 we would have Q(a)⟹Q(45a) and if a≤41, we would have Q(a)⟹Q(a2+a). Note that a≥41, Q(a)⟹Q(45a)⟹Q(1625a) which inductively proves that Q(4n5na) for all n∈Z+, and it's easy to see that there exists k∈Z+ satisfying b≤4k5ka which is a clear contradiction. On the other hand, we shall prove that a≤41 results in Q(a)⟹Q(a(na+1)) for all n∈Z+; The basis is already proven: Q(a)⟹Q(a2+a). For the inductive step, suppose that Q(a)⟹Q(na2+a). If na2+a≥41, it's already proven that g(b)=0 for all b, therefore we suppose the contrary, so Q(na2+a)⟹Q((na2+a)2+(na2+a)). But it's easy to see that (na2+a)2≥a2⟹(na2+a)2+(na2+a)≥a2+na2+a=a((n+1)a+1), therefore by g being increasing, Q(na2+a)⟹Q((na2+a)2+(na2+a))⟹Q(a((n+1)a+1)) which completes the induction. With this proven, it's concluded that g(x)=0⟺x=0. Now we prove that g is injective. Suppose on the contrary that g(a)=g(b) for some a>b. There exists some x,y≥0 satisfying x2+y2=a and 2xy=b. Without loss of generalization assume that x≥y. Therefore by P(x,y) and P(y,x) g(g(x)−y2)⟹x≥y⟹2xy=g(g(y)−x2)=g(a)−g(b)=0⟹g(x)≥g(y)=x2+y2⟹g(x)⟹y2≥x2⟹a=y2,g(y)=x2⟹y≥x=b⟹y=x Which is a clear contradiction. Hence f(x)=±x is the only possible option for non-constant f, which is indeed a solution. ■
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