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Mongolian IMO Team Selection Tests, 2015

Algebra Difficulty 8.5 Shortlist Prove it Mongolia

Let f,g:R→Rf, g: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} be continuous, non-constant functions satisfying
f(x−y)=f(x)f(y)+g(x)g(y) f(x - y) = f(x)f(y) + g(x)g(y)
for all x,y∈Rx, y \in \mathbb{R}.

a. Show that for any x,y∈Rx, y \in \mathbb{R}, we have g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+g(x)f(y)g(x + y) = f(x)g(y) + g(x)f(y).

b. Find all pairs f,gf, g satisfying the conditions.

Solution

Let ff and gg be functions satisfying the functional equation
f(x−y)=f(x)f(y)+g(x)g(y)(1) f(x-y) = f(x)f(y) + g(x)g(y) \quad (1)
Taking x→yx \to y in (1), we get
f(0)=f(x)2+g(x)2.(2) f(0) = f(x)^2 + g(x)^2. \quad (2)
Taking y→0y \to 0 in (1), we get
f(x)(1−f(0))=g(x)g(0).(3) f(x)(1-f(0)) = g(x)g(0). \quad (3)
Combining (2) and (3), we get
f(0)(1−f(0))2=(f(x)2+g(x)2)(1−f(0))2=g(x)2(g(0)2+(1−f(0))2). \begin{aligned} f(0)(1-f(0))^2 &= (f(x)^2 + g(x)^2)(1-f(0))^2 \\ &= g(x)^2(g(0)^2 + (1-f(0))^2). \end{aligned}
Since gg is non-constant, we have
f(0)=1andg(0)=0. f(0) = 1 \quad \text{and} \quad g(0) = 0.
Hence
f(x)2+g(x)2=1 f(x)^2 + g(x)^2 = 1

f(−x)=f(x).(4) f(-x) = f(x). \quad (4)

Taking y→−yy \to -y in (1), we get
f(x+y)=f(x)f(−y)+g(x)g(−y)=f(x)f(y)+g(x)g(−y). \begin{aligned} f(x+y) &= f(x)f(-y) + g(x)g(-y) \\ &= f(x)f(y) + g(x)g(-y). \end{aligned}
It follows that
g(x)g(−y)=g(−x)g(y)(5) g(x)g(-y) = g(-x)g(y) \quad (5)
for all x,y∈Rx, y \in \mathbb{R}. Since ff is non-constant, there exists u,v∈Ru, v \in \mathbb{R} such that f(u−v)≠f(u+v)f(u-v) \neq f(u+v). Then, clearly g(v)≠g(−v)g(v) \neq g(-v). On the other hand, we have g(v)2=1−f(v)2=1−f(−v)2=g(−v)2g(v)^2 = 1 - f(v)^2 = 1 - f(-v)^2 = g(-v)^2, hence g(−v)=−g(v)≠0g(-v) = -g(v) \neq 0. From (5), we see that
g(−x)=−g(x). g(-x) = -g(x).

a.
From (4) and (5), we have
f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)−g(x)g(y).(6) f(x+y) = f(x)f(y) - g(x)g(y). \quad (6)
Consequently, we have
f(x)=f(x+y−y)=f(x+y)f(y)+g(x+y)g(y)=f(x)f(y)2−g(x)g(y)f(y)+g(x+y)g(y)=f(x)(1−g(y)2)−g(x)f(y)g(y)+g(x+y)g(y)=f(x)−g(y)(g(x+y)−f(x)g(y)−g(x)f(y)), \begin{aligned} f(x) &= f(x+y-y) \\ &= f(x+y)f(y) + g(x+y)g(y) \\ &= f(x)f(y)^2 - g(x)g(y)f(y) + g(x+y)g(y) \\ &= f(x)(1-g(y)^2) - g(x)f(y)g(y) + g(x+y)g(y) \\ &= f(x) - g(y)(g(x+y) - f(x)g(y) - g(x)f(y)), \end{aligned}
hence
g(y)(g(x+y)−f(x)g(y)−g(x)f(y))=0. g(y)(g(x+y) - f(x)g(y) - g(x)f(y)) = 0.
It follows that for any yy with g(y)≠0g(y) \neq 0, we have
g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+g(x)f(y).(7) g(x+y) = f(x)g(y) + g(x)f(y). \quad (7)
Exchanging xx and yy we see that (7) holds if g(x)≠0g(x) \neq 0. If g(x)=g(y)=0g(x) = g(y) = 0, then f(x)2=f2(y)=1f(x)^2 = f^2(y) = 1, thus f(x+y)2=1f(x+y)^2 = 1 by (6). Hence g(x+y)=0g(x+y) = 0 and thus (7) also holds. This proves (a).

b.
Let h:R→{z∈C∣∣z∣=1}h: \mathbb{R} \to \{z \in \mathbb{C} \mid |z| = 1\} denote the function given by h(x)=f(x)+ig(x)h(x) = f(x) + ig(x). Then it follows from (6) and (7) that
h(x+y)=h(x)h(y). h(x+y) = h(x)h(y).
Since hh is continuous, we see that there exists c∈Rc \in \mathbb{R} such that h(x)=exp⁡(icx)h(x) = \exp(icx). Hence
{f(x)=cos⁡(cx)g(x)=sin⁡(cx).(8) \begin{cases} f(x) = \cos(cx) \\ g(x) = \sin(cx). \end{cases} \quad (8)
Conversely, it is clear that for any c∈Rc \in \mathbb{R}, (8) gives a solution to the problem.

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