Solution:
Answer: (1,1).
It is clear that for a given integer n, there is at most one integer k for which the equation holds. For n=1 this is k=1. But, for n>1, problem 1 asserts that σ(n)ϕ(n)≤n2−1<n2, so that k≥2. We now claim that 2>σ(n)ϕ(n)n2. Write n=p1e1⋯pkek, where the pi are distinct primes and ei≥1 for all i, and let q1<q2<⋯ be the primes in ascending order. Then
σ(n)ϕ(n)n2=i=1∏kpi−1piei+1−1⋅(pi−1)piei−1pi2ei=i=1∏kpi2ei−piei−1pi2ei=i=1∏k1−pi−1−ei1≤i=1∏k1−pi−21<i=1∏∞1−qi−21=i=1∏∞(j=0∑∞qi2j1)=n=1∑∞n21<1+n=2∑∞n2−11=1+21((11−31)+(21−41)+(31−51)+⋯)=47<2.
It follows that there can be no solutions to k=σ(n)ϕ(n)n2 other than n=k=1.