Does there exist a function f, f:R→R, such that {{f(x)}sin2x+{x}cosf(x)cosx=f(x),f(f(x))=f(x), for all real x. (Here {y} stands for the fractional part of y.)
Solution
Assume that there exists a function f(x) satisfying the problem condition: {{f(x)}sin2x+{x}cosf(x)cosx=f(x),f(f(x))=f(x), for all real x. Replacing x by f(x) in the first equality, we obtain {f(f(x))}sin2f(x)+{f(x)}cos2f(x)=f(f(x)). Since f(f(x))=f(x), from the obtained equality it follows that {f(x)}=f(x). So f:R→[0;1]. Replacing x by π, we have −{π}cosf(π)=f(π). Since f(π)∈[0,1] and {π}=0, we see that the left-hand side of the last equality is negative, whereas the right-hand side is nonnegative, a contradiction.
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