Maths Olympiad Prep

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, 2012

Number theory Difficulty 6.0 National olympiad Prove it Saudi Arabia

Find all positive integers nn with the following property: there are two divisors aa and bb of the number nn such that a2+b2+1a^2 + b^2 + 1 is a multiple of nn.

Solution

Since aa divides nn divides a2+b2+1a^2 + b^2 + 1, it follows that ab2+1a \mid b^2 + 1. Similarly ba2+1b \mid a^2 + 1. Thus we have gcd(a,b)=1\gcd(a, b) = 1.
We have aba2+b2+1ab \mid a^2 + b^2 + 1. By symmetry, we can assume aba \le b. It follows that
a2+b2+1=kab(1) a^2 + b^2 + 1 = kab \quad (1)
for some positive integer kk. In the case a=ba = b we have 2a2+12a^2 + 1 is a multiple of aa, meaning a=1a = 1. Consequently, (a,b)=(1,1)(a, b) = (1, 1) and k=3k = 3.

Assume now a>ba > b. The equation (1) considered as a quadratic equation in aa has a positive integer solution. Its second solution is
a=kba=b2+1a, a' = kb - a = \frac{b^2 + 1}{a},
and it is also a positive integer. Moreover,
a=b2+1ab2+1b+1b<a. a' = \frac{b^2 + 1}{a} \le \frac{b^2 + 1}{b+1} \le b < a.
Thus, if equation (1) has a solution (a,b)(a, b) with a>ba > b, then it also has another solution (b,a)(b, a') with a strictly smaller sum of numbers. Applying the same argument to this new solution, then to the next solution, etc., we eventually arrive at a pair (a0,b0)(a_0, b_0) that cannot be further reduced. Hence,
a0=b0=1, a_0 = b_0 = 1,
and thus k=3k = 3.
Thus, starting with an arbitrary solution one can descend to the pair (1,1)(1, 1). Therefore, all possible solution (a,b)(a, b) of (1) are constructed in the infinite chain
(1,1)(2,1)(5,2)(13,5)(34,13) (1, 1) \rightarrow (2, 1) \rightarrow (5, 2) \rightarrow (13, 5) \rightarrow (34, 13) \rightarrow \dots
The transfer to the next pair is by the rule (x,y)(3xy,x)(x, y) \rightarrow (3x - y, x).
It can easily be observed and then proved by induction that the kthk^{\text{th}} pair, if the pair (1,1)(1, 1) has number 0, consists of numbers (F2k+1,F2k1)(F_{2k+1}, F_{2k-1}), where (Fi)i0(F_i)_{i \ge 0} is the Fibonacci sequence, F0=0F_0 = 0, F1=1F_1 = 1, and Fi+2=Fi+1+FiF_{i+2} = F_{i+1} + F_i, i=0,1,i = 0, 1, \dots.
Finally, since nn is a multiple of abab and is a divisor of 3ab3ab, it follows that either
n=ab or n=3ab. n = ab \text{ or } n = 3ab.
Thus, the solutions are
n=1,3,n=F2k1F2k+1,n=3F2k1F2k+1,k=1,2, n = 1, 3, \quad n = F_{2k-1}F_{2k+1}, \quad n = 3F_{2k-1}F_{2k+1}, \quad k = 1, 2, \dots

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