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Algebra Difficulty 6.4 National olympiad Prove it China

Suppose f(x+2π)=f(x)f(x+2\pi) = f(x) for any xRx \in \mathbb{R}. Prove: there are fi(x)f_i(x) (i=1,2,3,4i = 1, 2, 3, 4) such that

(1) fi(x)f_i(x) (i=1,2,3,4i = 1, 2, 3, 4) is an even function, and fi(x+π)=fi(x)f_i(x + \pi) = f_i(x) for any xRx \in \mathbb{R};

(2) f(x)=f1(x)+f2(x)cosx+f3(x)sinx+f4(x)sin2xf(x) = f_1(x) + f_2(x)\cos x + f_3(x)\sin x + f_4(x)\sin 2x for any xRx \in \mathbb{R}.

Solution

Let g(x)=f(x)+f(x)2g(x) = \frac{f(x)+f(-x)}{2}, and h(x)=f(x)f(x)2h(x) = \frac{f(x)-f(-x)}{2}.
Then f(x)=g(x)+h(x)f(x) = g(x) + h(x), g(x)g(x) is an even function, h(x)h(x) is an odd function, and g(x+2π)=g(x)g(x+2\pi) = g(x), h(x+2π)=h(x)h(x+2\pi) = h(x) for any xRx \in \mathbb{R}.

Define
f1(x)=g(x)+g(x+π)2, f_1(x) = \frac{g(x) + g(x + \pi)}{2},
f2(x)={g(x)g(x+π)2cosx,xkπ+π2,0,x=kπ+π2, f_2(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{g(x) - g(x + \pi)}{2\cos x}, & x \neq k\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}, \\ 0, & x = k\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}, \end{cases}
f3(x)={h(x)h(x+π)2sinx,xkπ,0,x=kπ, f_3(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{h(x) - h(x + \pi)}{2\sin x}, & x \neq k\pi, \\ 0, & x = k\pi, \end{cases}
f4(x)={h(x)+h(x+π)2sin2x,xkπ2,0,x=kπ2, f_4(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{h(x) + h(x + \pi)}{2\sin 2x}, & x \neq \frac{k\pi}{2}, \\ 0, & x = \frac{k\pi}{2}, \end{cases}
where kk is an arbitrary integer. It is easy to check that fi(x)f_i(x) (i=1,2,3,4i = 1, 2, 3, 4) satisfy (1).

Next we prove that f1(x)+f2(x)cosx=g(x)f_1(x) + f_2(x)\cos x = g(x) for any xRx \in \mathbb{R}. When xkπ+π2x \neq k\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}, it is obviously true. When x=kπ+π2x = k\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}, we have
f1(x)+f2(x)cosx=f1(x)=g(x)+g(x+π)2, f_1(x) + f_2(x) \cos x = f_1(x) = \frac{g(x) + g(x + \pi)}{2},
and
g(x+π)=g(kπ+3π2)=g(kπ+3π22(k+1)π)=g(kππ2)=g(kπ+π2)=g(x). \begin{aligned} g(x + \pi) &= g\left(k\pi + \frac{3\pi}{2}\right) = g\left(k\pi + \frac{3\pi}{2} - 2(k+1)\pi\right) \\ &= g\left(-k\pi - \frac{\pi}{2}\right) = g\left(k\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}\right) = g(x). \end{aligned}
The proof is complete.

Further we prove that f3(x)sinx+f4(x)sin2x=h(x)f_3(x)\sin x + f_4(x)\sin 2x = h(x) for any xRx \in \mathbb{R}. When xkπ2x \neq \frac{k\pi}{2}, it is obviously true. When x=kπx = k\pi, we have
h(x)=h(kπ)=h(kπ2kπ)=h(kπ)=h(kπ). h(x) = h(k\pi) = h(k\pi - 2k\pi) = h(-k\pi) = -h(k\pi).
That means h(x)=h(kπ)=0h(x) = h(k\pi) = 0. In this case,
f3(x)sinx+f4(x)sin2x=0. f_3(x)\sin x + f_4(x)\sin 2x = 0.
Therefore h(x)=f3(x)sinx+f4(x)sin2x. \text{Therefore } h(x) = f_3(x)\sin x + f_4(x)\sin 2x.
When x=kπ+π2x = k\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}, we have
h(x+π)=h(kπ+3π2)=h(kπ+3π22(k+1)π)=h(kππ2)=h(kπ+π2)=h(x). \begin{aligned} h(x + \pi) &= h\left(k\pi + \frac{3\pi}{2}\right) = h\left(k\pi + \frac{3\pi}{2} - 2(k+1)\pi\right) \\ &= h\left(-k\pi - \frac{\pi}{2}\right) = -h\left(k\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}\right) = -h(x). \end{aligned}
So
f3(x)sinx=h(x)h(x+π)2=h(x). f_3(x)\sin x = \frac{h(x) - h(x + \pi)}{2} = h(x).
Furthermore, f4(x)sin2x=0f_4(x)\sin 2x = 0. Therefore
h(x)=f3(x)sinx+f4(x)sin2x. h(x) = f_3(x)\sin x + f_4(x)\sin 2x.
This completes the proof.

In conclusion, fi(x)f_i(x) (i=1,2,3,4i = 1, 2, 3, 4) satisfy (2).

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