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Algebra Difficulty 6.0 National olympiad Prove it

1. [15] Let P(x),Q(x)P(x), Q(x) be nonconstant polynomials with real number coefficients. Prove that if
P(y)=Q(y) \lfloor P(y)\rfloor=\lfloor Q(y)\rfloor
for all real numbers yy, then P(x)=Q(x)P(x)=Q(x) for all real numbers xx.

Solution

Answer:
By the condition, we know that P(x)Q(x)1|P(x)-Q(x)| \leq 1 for all xx. This can only hold if P(x)Q(x)P(x)-Q(x) is a constant polynomial. Now take a constant cc such that P(x)=Q(x)+cP(x)=Q(x)+c. Without loss of generality, we can assume that c0c \geq 0. Assume that c>0c>0. By continuity, if degP=degQ>0\operatorname{deg} P=\operatorname{deg} Q>0, we can select an integer rr and a real number x0x_{0} such that Q(x0)+c=rQ\left(x_{0}\right)+c=r. Then P(x0)=Q(x0)+c=r\left\lfloor P\left(x_{0}\right)\right\rfloor=\left\lfloor Q\left(x_{0}\right)+c\right\rfloor=r. On the other hand, Q(x0)=rc<r\left\lfloor Q\left(x_{0}\right)\right\rfloor=\lfloor r-c\rfloor<r as rr was an integer. This is a contradiction. Therefore, c=0c=0 as desired.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.