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Number theory Difficulty 5.8 AIME, harder Prove it

26 Let a,m,na, m, n be positive integers, a>1a>1. Prove: (am1,an1)=a(m,n)1\left(a^{m}-1, a^{n}-1\right)=a^{(m, n)}-1.

Solution

26. Suppose m>nm>n, then
and
(am1,an1)=(aman,an1)=(an(amn1),an1),(an,an1)=1,(am1,an1)=(amn1,an1),\begin{array}{l} \left(a^{m}-1, a^{n}-1\right)=\left(a^{m}-a^{n}, a^{n}-1\right) \\ =\left(a^{n}\left(a^{m-n}-1\right), a^{n}-1\right), \\ \left(a^{n}, a^{n}-1\right)=1, \\ \left(a^{m}-1, a^{n}-1\right)=\left(a^{m-n}-1, a^{n}-1\right), \end{array}

By repeatedly applying this, performing the "Euclidean algorithm" on the exponents, we can see that the conclusion holds.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.