Proof: Without loss of generality, let x⩾y⩾z, from x+y+z=1 we get x⩾31,z=1−x−y.
The original inequality is equivalent to x+y(1−x−y)x+y+(1−x−y)xy+1−x−y+xy1−x−y⩽49
Rearranging gives (x+y)(1−y)x+(x+y)(1−x)y+(1−x)(1−y)1−x−y⩽49
Multiplying both sides of the inequality by the positive number (1−x)(1−y)(x+y), it is sufficient to prove x(1−x)+y(1−y)+(1−x−y)(x+y)⩽49(x+y)(x−1)(1−y),
Expanding, rearranging, and moving terms and arranging in descending powers of y, it is sufficient to prove (9x−1)y2+(9x−1)(x−1)y+x(1−x)⩾0,
Completing the square for y on the left side of the inequality, it is sufficient to prove (9x−1)(y−21−x)2+4(3x−1)2(1−x)⩾0
Since 31⩽x<1,(9x−1)>0,4(3x−1)2(1−x)⩾0,
thus inequality (1) holds (with equality if and only if {x=31,y=21−x, i.e., {x=31,y=31),
Therefore, x+yzx+y+zxy+z+xyz⩽49, with equality if and only if x=y=z=31.