2. A2 (IRE) Let a1≥a2≥⋯≥an be real numbers such that a1k+a2k+⋯+ank≥0 for all integers k>0. Let p=max{∣a1∣,…,∣an∣}. Prove that p=a1 and that (x−a1)(x−a2)⋯(x−an)≤xn−a1n for all x>a1.
Solution
2. Clearly a1>0, and if p=a1, we must have an∣a1∣, and p=−an. But then for sufficiently large odd k,−ank=∣an∣k>(n−1)∣a1∣k, so that a1k+⋯+ank≤(n−1)∣a1∣k−∣an∣ka1. From a1+⋯+an≥0 we deduce ∑j=2n(x−aj)≤(n−1)(x+n−1a1), so by the AM-GM inequality, (x−a2)⋯(x−an)≤(x+n−1a1)n−1≤xn−1+xn−2a1+⋯+a1n−1 The last inequality holds because (rn−1)≤(n−1)r for all r≥0. Multiplying (1) by (x−a1) yields the desired inequality.
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