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Algebra Difficulty 6.8 National olympiad Prove it

2. A2 (IRE) Let a1a2ana_{1} \geq a_{2} \geq \cdots \geq a_{n} be real numbers such that
a1k+a2k++ank0 a_{1}^{k}+a_{2}^{k}+\cdots+a_{n}^{k} \geq 0
for all integers k>0k>0. Let p=max{a1,,an}p=\max \left\{\left|a_{1}\right|, \ldots,\left|a_{n}\right|\right\}. Prove that p=a1p=a_{1} and that
(xa1)(xa2)(xan)xna1n \left(x-a_{1}\right)\left(x-a_{2}\right) \cdots\left(x-a_{n}\right) \leq x^{n}-a_{1}^{n}
for all x>a1x>a_{1}.

Solution

2. Clearly a1>0a_{1}>0, and if pa1p \neq a_{1}, we must have ana1a_{n}\left|a_{1}\right|, and p=anp=-a_{n}. But then for sufficiently large odd k,ank=ank>(n1)a1kk,-a_{n}^{k}=\left|a_{n}\right|^{k}>(n-1)\left|a_{1}\right|^{k}, so that a1k++ank(n1)a1kanka1a_{1}^{k}+\cdots+a_{n}^{k} \leq(n-1)\left|a_{1}\right|^{k}-\left|a_{n}\right|^{k}a_{1}. From a1++an0a_{1}+\cdots+a_{n} \geq 0 we deduce j=2n(xaj)\sum_{j=2}^{n}\left(x-a_{j}\right) \leq (n1)(x+a1n1)(n-1)\left(x+\frac{a_{1}}{n-1}\right), so by the AM-GM inequality,
(xa2)(xan)(x+a1n1)n1xn1+xn2a1++a1n1 \left(x-a_{2}\right) \cdots\left(x-a_{n}\right) \leq\left(x+\frac{a_{1}}{n-1}\right)^{n-1} \leq x^{n-1}+x^{n-2} a_{1}+\cdots+a_{1}^{n-1}
The last inequality holds because (n1r)(n1)r\binom{n-1}{r} \leq(n-1)^{r} for all r0r \geq 0. Multiplying (1) by (xa1)\left(x-a_{1}\right) yields the desired inequality.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.