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Algebra Difficulty 6.6 National olympiad Prove it

Let Q>0\mathbb{Q}_{>0} be the set of positive rational numbers. Let f:Q>0Rf: \mathbb{Q}_{>0} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} be a function satisfying the conditions
f(x)f(y)f(xy) and f(x+y)f(x)+f(y) f(x) f(y) \geqslant f(x y) \text { and } f(x+y) \geqslant f(x)+f(y)
for all x,yQ>0x, y \in \mathbb{Q}_{>0}. Given that f(a)=af(a)=a for some rational a>1a>1, prove that f(x)=xf(x)=x for all xQ>0x \in \mathbb{Q}_{>0}. (Bulgaria)

Solution

Denote by Z>0\mathbb{Z}_{>0} the set of positive integers. Plugging x=1,y=ax=1, y=a into (1) we get f(1)1f(1) \geqslant 1. Next, by an easy induction on nn we get from (2) that
f(nx)nf(x) for all nZ>0 and xQ>0 f(n x) \geqslant n f(x) \text { for all } n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0} \text { and } x \in \mathbb{Q}_{>0}
In particular, we have
f(n)nf(1)n for all nZ>0 f(n) \geqslant n f(1) \geqslant n \quad \text { for all } n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}
From (1) again we have f(m/n)f(n)f(m)f(m / n) f(n) \geqslant f(m), so f(q)>0f(q)>0 for all qQ>0q \in \mathbb{Q}_{>0}. Now, (2) implies that ff is strictly increasing; this fact together with (4) yields
f(x)f(x)x>x1 for all x1 f(x) \geqslant f(\lfloor x\rfloor) \geqslant\lfloor x\rfloor>x-1 \quad \text { for all } x \geqslant 1
By an easy induction we get from (1) that f(x)nf(xn)f(x)^{n} \geqslant f\left(x^{n}\right), so
f(x)nf(xn)>xn1f(x)xn1n for all x>1 and nZ>0 f(x)^{n} \geqslant f\left(x^{n}\right)>x^{n}-1 \quad \Longrightarrow \quad f(x) \geqslant \sqrt[n]{x^{n}-1} \text { for all } x>1 \text { and } n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}
This yields
f(x)x for every x>1 f(x) \geqslant x \text { for every } x>1 \text {. }
(Indeed, if x>y>1x>y>1 then xnyn=(xy)(xn1+xn2y++yn)>n(xy)x^{n}-y^{n}=(x-y)\left(x^{n-1}+x^{n-2} y+\cdots+y^{n}\right)>n(x-y), so for a large nn we have xn1>ynx^{n}-1>y^{n} and thus f(x)>yf(x)>y.) Now, (1) and (5) give an=f(a)nf(an)ana^{n}=f(a)^{n} \geqslant f\left(a^{n}\right) \geqslant a^{n}, so f(an)=anf\left(a^{n}\right)=a^{n}. Now, for x>1x>1 let us choose nZ>0n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0} such that anx>1a^{n}-x>1. Then by (2) and (5) we get
an=f(an)f(x)+f(anx)x+(anx)=an a^{n}=f\left(a^{n}\right) \geqslant f(x)+f\left(a^{n}-x\right) \geqslant x+\left(a^{n}-x\right)=a^{n}
and therefore f(x)=xf(x)=x for x>1x>1. Finally, for every xQ>0x \in \mathbb{Q}_{>0} and every nZ>0n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}, from (1) and (3) we get
nf(x)=f(n)f(x)f(nx)nf(x) n f(x)=f(n) f(x) \geqslant f(n x) \geqslant n f(x)
which gives f(nx)=nf(x)f(n x)=n f(x). Therefore f(m/n)=f(m)/n=m/nf(m / n)=f(m) / n=m / n for all m,nZ>0m, n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}.

Comment. The condition f(a)=a>1f(a)=a>1 is essential. Indeed, for b1b \geqslant 1 the function f(x)=bx2f(x)=b x^{2} satisfies (1) and (2) for all x,yQ>0x, y \in \mathbb{Q}_{>0}, and it has a unique fixed point 1/b11 / b \leqslant 1.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.