Let Q>0 be the set of positive rational numbers. Let f:Q>0→R be a function satisfying the conditions f(x)f(y)⩾f(xy) and f(x+y)⩾f(x)+f(y) for all x,y∈Q>0. Given that f(a)=a for some rational a>1, prove that f(x)=x for all x∈Q>0. (Bulgaria)
Solution
Denote by Z>0 the set of positive integers. Plugging x=1,y=a into (1) we get f(1)⩾1. Next, by an easy induction on n we get from (2) that f(nx)⩾nf(x) for all n∈Z>0 and x∈Q>0 In particular, we have f(n)⩾nf(1)⩾n for all n∈Z>0 From (1) again we have f(m/n)f(n)⩾f(m), so f(q)>0 for all q∈Q>0. Now, (2) implies that f is strictly increasing; this fact together with (4) yields f(x)⩾f(⌊x⌋)⩾⌊x⌋>x−1 for all x⩾1 By an easy induction we get from (1) that f(x)n⩾f(xn), so f(x)n⩾f(xn)>xn−1⟹f(x)⩾nxn−1 for all x>1 and n∈Z>0 This yields f(x)⩾x for every x>1. (Indeed, if x>y>1 then xn−yn=(x−y)(xn−1+xn−2y+⋯+yn)>n(x−y), so for a large n we have xn−1>yn and thus f(x)>y.) Now, (1) and (5) give an=f(a)n⩾f(an)⩾an, so f(an)=an. Now, for x>1 let us choose n∈Z>0 such that an−x>1. Then by (2) and (5) we get an=f(an)⩾f(x)+f(an−x)⩾x+(an−x)=an and therefore f(x)=x for x>1. Finally, for every x∈Q>0 and every n∈Z>0, from (1) and (3) we get nf(x)=f(n)f(x)⩾f(nx)⩾nf(x) which gives f(nx)=nf(x). Therefore f(m/n)=f(m)/n=m/n for all m,n∈Z>0.
Comment. The condition f(a)=a>1 is essential. Indeed, for b⩾1 the function f(x)=bx2 satisfies (1) and (2) for all x,y∈Q>0, and it has a unique fixed point 1/b⩽1.
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