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Number theory Difficulty 6.1 National olympiad Prove it

Theorem 1 (Chinese Remainder Theorem) Let m1,,mkm_{1}, \cdots, m_{k} be pairwise coprime positive integers. Then, for any integers a1,,aka_{1}, \cdots, a_{k}, the system of linear congruences
xaj(modmj),1jkx \equiv a_{j}\left(\bmod m_{j}\right), \quad 1 \leqslant j \leqslant k
has a solution, and the solution is unique. In fact, let
c=M1M11a1++MkMk1akc=M_{1} M_{1}^{-1} a_{1}+\cdots+M_{k} M_{k}^{-1} a_{k}

where m=m1mk,m=mjMj(1jk),Mj1m=m_{1} \cdots m_{k}, m=m_{j} M_{j}(1 \leqslant j \leqslant k), M_{j}^{-1} is an integer satisfying
MjMj11(modmj),1jkM_{j} M_{j}^{-1} \equiv 1\left(\bmod m_{j}\right), \quad 1 \leqslant j \leqslant k

(i.e., the inverse of MjM_{j} modulo mjm_{j}) { }^{\oplus}. Then, the solution to the system of congruences (3) is
xc(modm)x \equiv c(\bmod m)

Furthermore, cc is coprime to mm if and only if aja_{j} is coprime to mjm_{j}, 1jk1 \leqslant j \leqslant k.

Solution

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.