AlgebraDifficulty 7.6National olympiad, round 2Prove it
Example 9 Let a1,a2,⋯,am be positive real numbers, and ∑i=1mai1=1. Then for every n∈N⋅, we have (∑i=1mai)n−∑i=1main⩾m2n−mκ+1.
Solution
Prove that because ∑i=1mai1=1⩾mma1a2⋯am1, so a1a2⋯am⩾mm
According to the polynomial expansion theorem, we have (i=1∑mai)n=∑n1!n2!⋯nm!n!a1n1a2n2⋯amnm
where n1,n2,⋯,nm are non-negative integers, and n1+n2+⋯+nm=n. Thus, (i=1∑mai)n−i=1∑main=∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!a1n1a2n2⋯amnm
where n1,n2,⋯,nm are non-negative integers, and less than n,n1+n2+⋯+nm=n (the following ∑′ all satisfy this condition).
In (1), replace the letters ai with 1, we get ∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!=mn−m
By symmetry, we have =(i=1∑mai)n−i=1∑main=∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!a2n1a3n2⋯a1n⋯=∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!amn1a1n2⋯am−2nm−1−1am−1nm
Multiply (1) with the above n−1 equalities, and apply the generalized Cauchy inequality, we get =⩾===⩾[(i=1∑mai)n−i=1∑main]m∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!a1n1a2n2⋯amn∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!⋅a2n1a3n2⋯a1n⋯∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!amnma1n2⋯am−2nam−1n[∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!(a1a2⋯am−1am)mn1(a2a3⋯ama1)mv2⋯(ama1a2⋯am−1)mnm]m[∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!(a1a2⋯am−1am)mn1+n2+⋯+nm]m[∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!(a1a2⋯am−1am)mn]m(a1a2⋯am−1am)n(∑′n1!n2!⋯nm!n!)mmm(mn−m)m=(m2n−mn+1)m,
Taking the m-th root on both sides, we get (i=1∑mai)n−i=1∑main⩾m2n−mn+1
Want a route through all this instead of an archive? The track
puts 2,000 problems in a working order, from AMC 10 level to the IMO shortlist.
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.