Maths Olympiad Prep

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Number theory Difficulty 5.9 AIME, harder Prove it

37. (ROM 3) Let A1,A2,,An+1A_{1}, A_{2}, \ldots, A_{n+1} be positive integers such that (Ai,An+1)=1\left(A_{i}, A_{n+1}\right) =1 for every i=1,2,,ni=1,2, \ldots, n. Show that the equation
x1A1+x2A2++xnAn=xn+1An+1 x_{1}^{A_{1}}+x_{2}^{A_{2}}+\cdots+x_{n}^{A_{n}}=x_{n+1}^{A_{n+1}}
has an infinite set of solutions (x1,x2,,xn+1)\left(x_{1}, x_{2}, \ldots, x_{n+1}\right) in positive integers.

Solution

37. We look for a solution with x1A1==xnAn=nA1A2Anxx_{1}^{A_{1}}=\cdots=x_{n}^{A_{n}}=n^{A_{1} A_{2} \cdots A_{n} x} and xn+1=x_{n+1}= nyn^{y}. In order for this to be a solution we must have A1A2Anx+1=A_{1} A_{2} \cdots A_{n} x+1= An+1yA_{n+1} y. This equation has infinitely many solutions (x,y)(x, y) in N\mathbb{N}, since A1A2AnA_{1} A_{2} \cdots A_{n} and An+1A_{n+1} are coprime.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.