I: Applying Cauchy-Schwarz's inequality:
(x2+y+1)(z2+y+1)=(x2+y+1)(1+y+z2)≥(x+y+z)2
Using the same reasoning we deduce:
(x2+z+1)(y2+z+1)≥(x+y+z)2
and
(y2+x+1)(z2+x+1)≥(x+y+z)2
Multiplying these three inequalities we get the desired result.
Solution II: We have
(x2+y+1)(z2+y+1)≥(x+y+z)2⇔x2z2+x2y+x2+yz2+y2+y+z2+y+1≥x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx⇔(x2z2−2zx+1)+(x2y−2xy+y)+(yz2−2yz+y)≥0⇔(xz−1)2+y(x−1)2+y(z−1)2≥0
which is correct.
Using the same reasoning we get:
(x2+z+1)(y2+z+1)≥(x+y+z)2(y2+x+1)(z2+x+1)≥(x+y+z)2
Multiplying these three inequalities we get the desired result. Equality is attained at x=y=z=1.
### 2.2 Combinatorics
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