Prove: By the 2-variable mean inequality, we get
2aba2+b2+a+b2ab≥22aba2+b2⋅a+b2ab=2a3b+ab3a2+b2
Therefore, it suffices to prove a3b+ab3a2+b2≥1, which is equivalent to
a2+b2≥a3b+ab3
By the 4-variable mean inequality, we get
a2+b2=4a2+a2+a2+b2+4a2+b2+b2+b2≥4a2⋅a2⋅a2⋅b2+4a2⋅b2⋅b2⋅b2=a3b+ab3, Q.E.D.