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Number theory Difficulty 7.9 National olympiad, round 2 Prove it

Let a,ba,b be two integers and suppose that nn is a positive integer for which the set Z\{axn+bynx,yZ}\mathbb{Z} \backslash \{ax^n + by^n \mid x,y \in \mathbb{Z}\} is finite. Prove that n=1n=1.

Solution

To prove that n=1 n = 1 is the only possible value for which the set Z\{axn+bynx,yZ} \mathbb{Z} \backslash \{ax^n + by^n \mid x,y \in \mathbb{Z}\} is finite, we will consider the cases where n1 n \neq 1 and show that in these cases, there are infinitely many integers that cannot be expressed in the form axn+byn ax^n + by^n .

1. **Assume n1 n \neq 1 **:
- We want to show that there are infinitely many integers not of the form axn+byn ax^n + by^n .
- If g=gcd(a,b)>1 g = \gcd(a, b) > 1 , then we can take all integers that are 1modg 1 \mod g . Thus, we assume g=1 g = 1 .

2. **Case 1: n2 n \neq 2 **:
- Take any prime p7 p \ge 7 such that p1modn p \equiv 1 \mod n . By Dirichlet's Theorem on arithmetic progressions, there are infinitely many such primes.
- The function f(x)=xn f(x) = x^n assumes only p1n+1 \frac{p-1}{n} + 1 different values modulo p p :
- f(0)=0 f(0) = 0 is one value.
- For x0 x \neq 0 , consider f f as a group endomorphism on (Z/pZ) (\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^* . The kernel consists of all x x such that xn=1 x^n = 1 . Since (Z/pZ) (\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^* is cyclic and n(p1) n \mid (p-1) , there are n n such values.
- By the First Isomorphism Theorem, the image of f f has size p1n \frac{p-1}{n} . Including 0 0 , there are p1n+1 \frac{p-1}{n} + 1 values for xnmodp x^n \mod p .
- Therefore, axn+byn ax^n + by^n assumes at most 2(p1n+1) 2\left(\frac{p-1}{n} + 1\right) distinct values modulo p p . If n>2 n > 2 , then (since p7 p \ge 7 ):
2(p1n+1)2(p13+1)p1<p 2\left(\frac{p-1}{n} + 1\right) \leq 2\left(\frac{p-1}{3} + 1\right) \leq p-1 < p
- Hence, there is an entire equivalence class modulo p p which is not of the form axn+byn ax^n + by^n .

3. **Case 2: n=2 n = 2 **:
- The previous argument does not work, and we need a different approach.
- If a a and b b have the same sign, the numbers ax2+by2 ax^2 + by^2 have the same sign too, and we can choose all the numbers of the opposite sign.
- Assume without loss of generality that a0b a \ge 0 \ge b .
- If ab=0 ab = 0 , the case is simple. For example, if a=0 a = 0 and b0 b \neq 0 , then the values (x2+1)b (x^2 + 1)b are never assumed. If a=b=0 a = b = 0 , then only 0 0 is assumed.
- Subcase 1: a a and b -b are both squares. All the values of the set are differences of squares, and they are never equal to 2mod4 2 \mod 4 .
- Subcase 2: a a and b -b are not both squares.
- Let p p be a prime such that (p,ab)=1 (p, ab) = 1 . If p=ax2+by2 p = ax^2 + by^2 , then p p does not divide x x or y y . If p p divides x x , it also divides y y , and hence p2 p^2 divides the RHS while it does not divide the LHS.
- If p=ax2+by2 p = ax^2 + by^2 , then ab1 -ab^{-1} is a square modulo p p , which is equivalent to ab -ab being a square modulo p p .
- If we can find infinitely many primes p p such that (abp)=1 \left(\frac{-ab}{p}\right) = -1 , we are done. This means ax2+by2 ax^2 + by^2 is never equal to these primes.
- This is equivalent to (tp)=1 \left(\frac{t}{p}\right) = -1 , where t t is the square-free part of ab -ab (and t1 t \neq 1 since (a,b)=1 (a, b) = 1 and they are not both squares). Since t1 t \neq 1 and (tp) \left(\frac{t}{p}\right) is identically 1 1 for all primes p p (except for finitely many) only for t=1 t = 1 , we are done.

4. Proof of the claim:
- Decomposing t t into distinct primes: t=i=1kpi t = \prod_{i=1}^{k} p_i , and using properties of the Legendre symbol (multiplicative!) and quadratic reciprocity, shows that (tp)=1 \left(\frac{t}{p}\right) = -1 is equivalent to:
pi2(ppi)=(1)1+p12pi2pi12(1)p218 if 2t \prod_{p_i \neq 2} \left(\frac{p}{p_i}\right) = (-1)^{1 + \frac{p-1}{2} \frac{\sum_{p_i \neq 2} p_i - 1}{2}} \cdot (-1)^{\frac{p^2-1}{8}} \text{ if } 2 \mid t
- By the Chinese Remainder Theorem, the LHS is 1 1 if and only if p p is equivalent to certain values modulo t(t,2) \frac{t}{(t, 2)} (since the Legendre symbol is periodic: (xpi) \left(\frac{x}{p_i}\right) has period pi p_i ), and the RHS is 1 1 if and only if p p is equivalent to certain values modulo 8 8 . Hence, there is no identity in the above equation, and we can choose primes with specific values modulo 8t(t,2) 8\frac{t}{(t, 2)} that will violate the equality.
- We use Dirichlet's Theorem, but it can be avoided (see the chapter about Quadratic Reciprocity in Ireland and Rosen).

Since we have shown that for n1 n \neq 1 , there are infinitely many integers not of the form axn+byn ax^n + by^n , it follows that the only possible value for n n is n=1 n = 1 .

\blacksquare

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.