AlgebraDifficulty 7.2National olympiad, round 2Prove it
Proposition 4 If the series ∑i=1∞∣a1i∣m,∑i=1∞∣a2i∣m,⋯∑i=1∞∣ami∣m all converge, and for ∀n∈N there is the inequality (i=1∑n∣a1ia2i⋯ami∣)m≤i=1∑∞∣a1i∣mj=1∑∞∣a2i∣m⋯i=1∑n∣ami∣m
then for any continuous functions fj(x)(j=1,2,⋯,n) defined on [a,b], we have [∫abi=1∏nfj(x)dx]n≤i=1∏n[∫abfjf(x)dx]
Solution
Proof: Given functions fj(x) defined on the interval [a,b] and continuous (j∈N), divide the interval [a,b] into m equal parts, then the length of each subinterval is Δx. Take the left endpoint ξi(i=1,2,⋯,m) of each subinterval, then we have ∫ab∏j=1nfj(x)dx=limn→∞∑i=1m(∣f1(ξi)∥f2(ξi)∣⋯∣fn(ξi)∣)Δx∫abfj(xi)∣dx=limn→∞∑i=1m(fjb(ξi)∣,j=1,2,⋯n
Let ∣a1in∣=∣f1p(ξi)∣,∣a2in∣=∣f2n(ξi)∣,⋯,∣anin∣=∣fnn(ξi)∣, then the series ∑i=1∞∣a1in∣, ∑i=1∞∣a2in∣,⋯,∑i=1∞∣anin∣ all converge. By the corollary of Proposition 2, we get: (i=1∑∞∣aiia2i⋯aki∣)n≤i=1∑∞∣aiin∣i=1∑∞∣a1in∣⋯(i=1∑∞∣akinn∣)
That is [i=1∑n∣f1(ξi)f2(ξi)⋯fn(ξi)∣]n≤i=1∑nf1f(ξi)⋯i=1∑nfnf(ξi)
Therefore, we have [i=1∑∞f1(ξi)f2(ξi)⋯fn(ξi)Δx]n≤i=1∑∞f1′(ξi)Δx⋯i=1∑∞1n′(ξi)Δx
Thus, we obtain: [∫abj=1∏nfj(x)dx]n≤j=1∏n[∫abfjB(x)dx]
Therefore, the original proposition holds.
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