For arbitrary prime p and positive integer n, denote by ordp(n) the exponent of p in n. Thus,
νp(n)=ordp(n!)=i=1∑nordp(i)
Lemma. Let p be a prime number, q be a positive integer, k and r be positive integers such that pk>r. Then νp(qpk+r)=νp(qpk)+νp(r).
Proof. We claim that ordp(qpk+i)=ordp(i) for all 0<i≤r. By the construction of the sequence, pinℓ1 divides nℓ2+…+nℓm; clearly, pinℓ1>nℓ1 for all 1≤i≤k. Therefore the Lemma can be applied for p=pi,k=r=nℓ1 and qpk=nℓ2+…+nℓm to obtain
fi(nℓ1+nℓ2+…+nℓm)=fi(nℓ1)+fi(nℓ2+…+nℓm) for all 1≤i≤k
and hence
f(nℓ1+nℓ2+…+nℓm)=f(nℓ1)+f(nℓ2+…+nℓm)=f(nℓ1)+f(nℓ2)+…+f(nℓm)
by the induction hypothesis.
Now consider the values f(n1),f(n2),… There exist finitely many possible values of f. Hence, there exists an infinite sequence of indices ℓ1<ℓ2<… such that f(nℓ1)=f(nℓ2)=… and thus
f(nℓm+1+nℓm+2+…+nℓm+d)=f(nℓm+1)+…+f(nℓm+d)=d⋅f(nℓ1)=(0,…,0)
for all m. We have found infinitely many suitable numbers.