Example 3 If xi>0(i=1,2,⋯,n),n⩾2, and 1+x11+1+x21+⋯+1+xn1= 1, prove that: x1x2⋯xn⩾(n−1)n
Solutions — 2
Solution 1
Proof: Let 1+x11=a1+a2+⋯+ana1,1+x21=a1+a2+⋯+ana2,⋯,1+xn1=a1+a2+⋯+anan, where a1,a2,⋯,an are positive numbers, then x1=a1a2+a3+⋯+an⩾(n−1)a1n−1a2a3⋯anx2=a2a1+a3+⋯+an⩾(n−1)a2a1a3anxn=ana1+a2+⋯+an−1(n−1)ann−1a1a2⋯an−1
Multiplying the above n−1 inequalities, we get x1x2⋯xn⩾(n−1)n.
Solution 2
Proof: Let 1+x11=a1+a2+⋯+ana1,1+x21=a1+a2+⋯+ana2, ⋯,1+xn1=a1+a2+⋯+anan, where a1,a2,⋯,an are positive numbers, then x1=a1a2+a3+⋯+an⩾(n−1)a1n−1a2a3⋯an,x2=a2a1+a3+⋯+an⩾(n−1)a2n−1a1a3⋯an,⋯xn=ana1+a2+⋯+an−1⩾(n−1)ann−1a1a2⋯an−1.
Multiplying the above n−1 inequalities, we get x1x2⋯xn⩾(n−1)n.
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