Prove: Let ∑i=1maijn=Ajn.
By the arithmetic-geometric mean inequality, we have
∑i=1m∏j=1nAjaij⩽∑i=1m(n1∑j=1nAjnaijn)=n1∑j=1n∑i=1mAjnajn=n1∑j=1n1=1,
Thus, (∑i=1m∏j=1naij)n⩽A1nA2n⋯Ann=∏j=1n∑i=1maijn.
Note: Taking n=2 yields the Cauchy inequality, and taking m=2 yields
(i=1∑2j=1∏naij)n⩽j=1∏ni=1∑2aijn,
which is a transformation of a problem from the 64th Putnam Mathematical Competition.
Corollary: Let a1,a2,⋯,an and b1,b2,⋯,bn be non-negative real number sequences. Then
[(a1+b1)(a2+b2)⋯(an+bn)]n1⩾(a1a2⋯an)n1+(b1b2⋯bn)n1