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Number theory Difficulty 5.9 AIME, harder Prove it

Show that if there exists a prime number pp such that n0(modp2)n \equiv 0\left(\bmod p^{2}\right), then there are at most (n1)/p(n-1) / p disloyal numbers.

Solution

. First, no integer xx is disloyal if it is not coprime with nn. Therefore, it suffices to show that, among the φ(n)\varphi(n) elements of (Z/nZ)(\mathbb{Z} / n \mathbb{Z})^{*}, at most φ(n)/p\varphi(n) / p are disloyal. Let aa be an element of (Z/nZ)(\mathbb{Z} / n \mathbb{Z})^{*} of order p(p1)p(p-1) modulo p2p^{2} and let D\mathcal{D} be the set of disloyal elements.

If xx and xx^{\prime} are two disloyal elements, and for all integers kkk \leqslant k^{\prime} between 0 and p1p-1, if akx=akxa^{k} x=a^{k^{\prime}} x^{\prime}, then a(kk)(n1)xn1/(x)n11(modp2)a^{\left(k^{\prime}-k\right)(n-1)} \equiv x^{n-1} /\left(x^{\prime}\right)^{n-1} \equiv 1\left(\bmod p^{2}\right). This shows that p(p1)p(p-1), and in particular pp, divides (kk)(n1)\left(k^{\prime}-k\right)(n-1), so that k=kk=k^{\prime} and thus x=xx=x^{\prime}. We conclude that n1φ(n)pDn-1 \geqslant \varphi(n) \geqslant p|\mathcal{D}|, which completes the proof.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.